which laboratory test result will the nurse monitor when evaluating the effects of therapy for a 62 year old female patient who has acute pancreatitis
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Questions

1. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effects of therapy for a 62-year-old female patient with acute pancreatitis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. In acute pancreatitis, amylase levels are typically elevated. Monitoring amylase levels helps assess the effectiveness of therapy in managing the condition. Elevated amylase is a key indicator of pancreatic inflammation. Calcium (Choice A) levels may be affected in pancreatitis, but they are not the primary indicator for evaluating therapy effectiveness. Bilirubin (Choice B) and Potassium (Choice D) levels may also be altered in pancreatitis, but they are not specific markers for monitoring therapy response in acute pancreatitis.

2. A patient is being treated in the Neurology Unit for Meningitis. Which of these is a priority assessment for the nurse to make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring for increased lethargy and drowsiness is crucial as these symptoms indicate a decreased level of consciousness, which is the cardinal sign of increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP). Elevated ICP can lead to serious complications and requires immediate intervention. Assessing for nuchal rigidity is important in suspected cases of meningitis but monitoring lethargy and drowsiness takes precedence due to its direct correlation with ICP. Determining past exposure to infectious organisms and checking WBC lab values are important for diagnosing and treating meningitis but do not directly address the immediate concern of increased ICP.

3. A child is suspected of suffering from intussusception. The nurse should be alert to which clinical manifestation of this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intussusception is an invagination of a section of the intestine into the distal bowel, and it is the most common cause of bowel obstruction in children aged 3 months to 6 years. A tender, distended abdomen is a typical clinical manifestation of intussusception. The presence of fecal incontinence is not a characteristic presentation of intussusception; it describes encopresis, which generally affects preschool and school-aged children but is not specific to intussusception. Incomplete development of the anus describes imperforate anus, a disorder diagnosed in the neonatal period, not intussusception. The infrequent and difficult passage of dry stools is characteristic of constipation, a common issue in children that can occur at any age, although it often peaks at 2 to 3 years old.

4. A patient is admitted with active tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should question a healthcare provider's order to discontinue airborne precautions unless which assessment finding is documented?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative. Negative sputum smears indicate that Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not present in the sputum, and the patient cannot transmit the bacteria by the airborne route. This finding is crucial for discontinuing airborne precautions. Choice A is incorrect because chest x-rays do not determine the presence of active TB for transmission precautions. Choice B is not directly related to the infectiousness of TB; completing a 6-month course of medication is important for treatment but does not confirm the absence of active disease or infectiousness. Choice C is not relevant to assessing infectiousness; Mantoux testing measures exposure to TB but does not confirm the absence of active infection or infectiousness.

5. Mr. L was working in his garage at home and had an accident with a power saw. He is brought into the emergency department by a neighbor with a traumatic hand amputation. What is the first action of the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse in this scenario is to apply direct pressure to the injury. When a client presents with traumatic hand amputation causing excessive bleeding, the immediate goal is to control the bleeding. Applying direct pressure with a sterile dressing helps to stem the flow of blood and stabilize the patient. Placing a tourniquet at the level of the elbow should be avoided initially as it may lead to further complications such as tissue damage. Administering a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline is not the priority in this situation where hemorrhage control is crucial. Elevating the injured extremity on a pillow does not address the primary concern of controlling the bleeding and stabilizing the patient.

Similar Questions

For a 6-year-old child hospitalized with moderate edema and mild hypertension associated with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN), which one of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate?
The healthcare professional is taking the health history of a patient being treated for sickle cell disease. After being told the patient has severe generalized pain, the healthcare professional expects to note which assessment finding?
When auscultating the patient's lungs during a shift assessment on a patient admitted in the early phase of heart failure, which finding would the nurse most likely hear?
The home health nurse visits a male client to provide wound care and finds the client lethargic and confused. His wife states he fell down the stairs two (2) hours ago. The nurse should
A two-year-old child has sustained an injury to the leg and refuses to walk. The nurse in the emergency department documents swelling of the lower affected leg. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the cause of the child's symptoms?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses