Nursing Elites

1. During the first meeting of a therapy group, members exhibit frequent periods of silence, tense laughter, and nervous movements. Which conclusion would the nurse make?

• A. The group requires an active leader who will intervene to relieve signs of obvious stress.
• B. The group process is unhealthy and there is unwillingness to openly relate.
• C. The members are displaying expected behaviors because relationships are not yet established.
• D. The behaviors should be immediately addressed so members will not become too uncomfortable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the initial stages of a therapy group, it is common for members to exhibit behaviors such as silence, tense laughter, and nervous movements. These behaviors indicate anxiety and insecurity due to the lack of established relationships and trust among the group members. This is a normal part of group development, and it does not necessarily mean that the group process is unhealthy. Intervening or addressing these behaviors immediately is not required as they are expected in the early stages of group interaction. As the group progresses and relationships are built, these behaviors are likely to diminish naturally without the need for active leader intervention. Therefore, the correct conclusion is that the members are displaying expected behaviors because relationships are not yet established. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because active leader intervention is not necessary, the group process is not unhealthy, and addressing the behaviors immediately is not required as they are part of the early group dynamics and are expected to subside as relationships develop.

2. When taking a client's blood pressure, the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Deflate the cuff completely and immediately reattempt the reading.
• B. Re-inflate the cuff completely and leave it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds before taking the second reading.
• C. Deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading.
• D. Document the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard while taking a client's blood pressure, the best action is to deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading. Deflating the cuff for this duration allows blood flow to return to the extremity, ensuring an accurate reading on that extremity a second time. Option A of deflating the cuff completely and immediately reattempting the reading could lead to a falsely high reading. Option B, re-inflating the cuff completely and leaving it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds, reduces circulation, causes pain, and may alter the reading. Option D, documenting the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen, is not a reliable method for assessing blood pressure and does not address the issue of obtaining an accurate reading.

3. A community hospital is opening a mental health services department. Which document should the nurse use to develop the unit's nursing guidelines?

• A. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
• B. ANA Code of Ethics with Interpretive Statements
• C. ANA's Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice
• D. Patient's Bill of Rights of 1990

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct document the nurse should use to develop the unit's nursing guidelines for the mental health services department is ANA's Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice. This document specifically outlines the philosophy and standards of nursing practice, including psychiatric nursing. Option A, the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, and option D, the Patient's Bill of Rights of 1990, focus on client rights and legal protections rather than nursing practice guidelines. Option B, the ANA Code of Ethics with Interpretive Statements, provides ethical guidelines for nursing practice but does not specifically address the development of nursing guidelines for a mental health services department.

4. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

• A. 18-24 years
• B. 25-34 years
• C. 35-44 years
• D. 45-64 years

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

5. A woman who had a mastectomy is scheduled for a mastectomy peer support visit arranged by her primary health care provider. What is the purpose of the referral?

• A. To teach arm exercises
• B. To prevent social isolation
• C. To meet her physical needs
• D. To view her surgical incision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The purpose of a mastectomy peer support visit is to prevent social isolation. This visit helps the client maintain her social connections and learn about community resources. Teaching arm exercises and meeting physical needs are tasks for healthcare professionals, not the primary goal of a peer support visit. Viewing the surgical incision is also not the primary purpose of such a visit.

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