Nursing Elites

1. During the first meeting of a therapy group, members exhibit frequent periods of silence, tense laughter, and nervous movements. Which conclusion would the nurse make?

• A. The group requires an active leader who will intervene to relieve signs of obvious stress.
• B. The group process is unhealthy and there is unwillingness to openly relate.
• C. The members are displaying expected behaviors because relationships are not yet established.
• D. The behaviors should be immediately addressed so members will not become too uncomfortable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the initial stages of a therapy group, it is common for members to exhibit behaviors such as silence, tense laughter, and nervous movements. These behaviors indicate anxiety and insecurity due to the lack of established relationships and trust among the group members. This is a normal part of group development, and it does not necessarily mean that the group process is unhealthy. Intervening or addressing these behaviors immediately is not required as they are expected in the early stages of group interaction. As the group progresses and relationships are built, these behaviors are likely to diminish naturally without the need for active leader intervention. Therefore, the correct conclusion is that the members are displaying expected behaviors because relationships are not yet established. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because active leader intervention is not necessary, the group process is not unhealthy, and addressing the behaviors immediately is not required as they are part of the early group dynamics and are expected to subside as relationships develop.

2. A client undergoing presurgical testing before a total abdominal hysterectomy says to the nurse, 'After I have this surgery I know my husband will never come near me again.' Which response would the nurse give?

• A. You're underestimating how your husband will respond to your surgery.
• B. You're concerned about the effect on your sexual relations.
• C. You're worried that the surgery will change how others see you.
• D. You're concerned about how your husband will respond to your surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the client's expressed concern about her husband's reaction to the surgery, encouraging further discussion without imposing the nurse's assumptions. Choice A reframes the client's concern to focus on the husband's response, aligning more closely with the client's stated worry. Choice B makes an assumption about the client's concerns regarding sexual relations, which may not be the primary focus of her statement. Choice C shifts the attention to how others perceive the client, deviating from the client's specific reference to her husband's reaction, thus not addressing the client's main concern.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients before surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications during surgery?

• A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
• B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
• C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
• D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is taking anticoagulants for the past year. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications. It is crucial for the healthcare provider to be aware of this medication. While clients taking birth control pills (option A) may be more prone to developing blood clots, these issues typically arise after surgery. Clients who recently completed antibiotic therapy (option C) or have taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months (option D) are at lower risk compared to those taking anticoagulants (option B) during surgery.

4. The nurse assesses a 2-year-old who is admitted for dehydration and finds that the peripheral IV rate by gravity has slowed, even though the venous access site is healthy. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Apply a warm compress proximal to the site.
• B. Check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole.
• C. Adjust the tape that stabilizes the needle.
• D. Flush with normal saline and recount the drop rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When encountering a slowed peripheral IV rate, the nurse should initially check for common factors affecting infusion rates. Factors such as the height of the IV bag, presence of kinks in the tubing, needle size or position, client blood pressure, fluid viscosity, and infiltration can impact the rate. It is crucial to ensure the tubing is free of any kinks and that the IV pole is at an appropriate height to facilitate proper flow by gravity. Applying warmth proximal to the site might help with venospasm, but this intervention should come after ensuring proper tubing flow. Adjusting the tape that stabilizes the needle or flushing with normal saline may be necessary later in the troubleshooting process, but these actions should follow checking for kinks and adjusting the IV pole height, which are less invasive interventions.

5. A 19-year-old client is paralyzed in a car accident. Which statement used by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client was using the mechanism of "suppression"?

• A. "I don't remember anything about what happened to me."
• B. "I'd rather not talk about it right now."
• C. "It's the other guy's fault! He was going too fast."
• D. "My mother is heartbroken about this."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is "I don't remember anything about what happened to me." This statement indicates the use of suppression, which is the willful act of putting an unacceptable thought or feeling out of one's mind. In this case, the client is deliberately excluding memories of the traumatic event to protect their self-esteem. The other choices do not reflect suppression: Choice B shows avoidance or deflection, Choice C demonstrates blame shifting, and Choice D indicates empathy towards another individual.

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