NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which is a physical, integumentary risk among the elderly population?
- A. Skin tears
- B. Thickened skin
- C. Thinning toe nails
- D. Less nasal hair
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Skin tears are a physical integumentary risk among the elderly population. As individuals age, their skin becomes thinner and more fragile, making them susceptible to skin tears. Thickened skin, thinning toenails, and reduced nasal hair are common age-related changes but do not pose the same level of risk as skin tears. Thickened skin may provide some protection, thinning toenails are primarily a cosmetic concern, and reduced nasal hair does not typically lead to significant health risks.
2. A nurse is providing dismissal instructions for a child who was admitted for rotavirus. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I'll start giving him his antibiotics as soon as we get home.
- B. I will call the physician if he becomes dizzy or overly fussy.
- C. He will need to wash his hands a lot to keep this from spreading.
- D. I'll watch to see when he stops having diarrhea stools.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'I'll start giving him his antibiotics as soon as we get home.' Rotavirus is a viral illness, and antibiotics are ineffective for its treatment. The parent's statement indicates a need for further teaching as antibiotics are not appropriate for treating rotavirus. Option B is correct as it demonstrates the parent's understanding of when to contact the physician for concerning symptoms. Option C is a correct statement regarding infection control practices. Option D is also correct as monitoring diarrhea stools is essential to track recovery from rotavirus.
3. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?
- A. Elevated fibrinogen level
- B. Prolonged PT
- C. Elevated platelet count
- D. Depressed d-dimer level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.
4. An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
- A. Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
- B. Craniosynostosis, with premature closure of the cranial sutures
- C. Plagiocephaly, with flattening of one side of the head
- D. Hydrocephalus, with increased head size
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is torticollis, characterized by the shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of cranial sutures, leading to an abnormal head shape but not necessarily affecting head position. Plagiocephaly is flattening of one side of the head due to external forces or positioning, not muscle shortening. Hydrocephalus presents with an increased head size due to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, not with a fixed head position.
5. Your patient has been diagnosed with herpes simplex virus 2. Which of the following would NOT be included in your teaching of this patient?
- A. If you have symptoms, you should avoid sexual contact with other individuals.
- B. With treatment, this condition can be cured.
- C. This disease is highly contagious.
- D. You may experience tingling in the skin before an active outbreak occurs.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'With treatment, this condition can be cured.' The treatment for herpes simplex virus (HSV) is symptomatic and palliative, aimed at managing symptoms rather than curing the infection. HSV is highly contagious, so sexual contact should be avoided during active outbreaks to prevent transmission. Many patients experience a tingling sensation in the skin before an active outbreak, known as a prodrome. Educating the patient that the condition is not curable but manageable with treatment is vital to set realistic expectations and promote proper management of the disease.
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