Nursing Elites

1. Which is a physical, integumentary risk among the elderly population?

• A. Skin tears
• B. Thickened skin
• C. Thinning toe nails
• D. Less nasal hair

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Skin tears are a physical integumentary risk among the elderly population. As individuals age, their skin becomes thinner and more fragile, making them susceptible to skin tears. Thickened skin, thinning toenails, and reduced nasal hair are common age-related changes but do not pose the same level of risk as skin tears. Thickened skin may provide some protection, thinning toenails are primarily a cosmetic concern, and reduced nasal hair does not typically lead to significant health risks.

2. The depressed client verbalizes feelings of low self-esteem and self-worth, typified by statements such as "I'm such a failure"? I can't do anything right!"? The best nursing response would be:

• A. To tell the client this is not true; that we all have a purpose in life.
• B. To remain with the client and sit in silence; this will encourage the client to verbalize feelings.
• C. To reassure the client that you know how the client is feeling and that things will get better.
• D. To identify recent behaviors or accomplishments that demonstrate skill ability.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response in this situation is to reassure the client that you understand how they are feeling and provide hope for improvement. While acknowledging the client's feelings, it is essential to offer support and encouragement. Choice A is not the best response as it dismisses the client's feelings and offers a generalized statement. Choice B, remaining silent, may lead the client to feel unheard or unsupported. Choice D, identifying recent behaviors or accomplishments, may not be as effective in addressing the immediate emotional distress and negative self-talk expressed by the client. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate response in this scenario, offering empathy and optimism to help the client feel understood and supported.

3. A physician has written an order for '2.0 mg MS q 2-4 hr prn pain.' What is the nurse's appropriate response to this order?

• A. Give 2 mg of morphine sulfate to the client
• B. Give 20 mg of morphine sulfate to the client
• C. Contact the pharmacy to clarify the order
• D. Contact the physician to rewrite the order

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The physician's order contains several errors that could lead to potential harm to the client if not addressed. The use of '2.0' involves a trailing decimal point, which may lead to confusion regarding the intended dose of the drug. Additionally, the abbreviation 'MS' is considered a Do Not Use abbreviation by the Joint Commission, as it could refer to morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate, leading to medication errors. While the order indicates the drug should be used for pain, the nurse should contact the physician to clarify the exact dose and specific drug to be administered, ensuring safe and accurate medication administration. Therefore, the correct response is to contact the physician to rewrite the order.

4. Your patient has been diagnosed with herpes simplex virus 2. Which of the following would NOT be included in your teaching of this patient?

• A. If you have symptoms, you should avoid sexual contact with other individuals.
• B. With treatment, this condition can be cured.
• C. This disease is highly contagious.
• D. You may experience tingling in the skin before an active outbreak occurs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'With treatment, this condition can be cured.' The treatment for herpes simplex virus (HSV) is symptomatic and palliative, aimed at managing symptoms rather than curing the infection. HSV is highly contagious, so sexual contact should be avoided during active outbreaks to prevent transmission. Many patients experience a tingling sensation in the skin before an active outbreak, known as a prodrome. Educating the patient that the condition is not curable but manageable with treatment is vital to set realistic expectations and promote proper management of the disease.

5. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:

• A. Excessive fetal weight
• B. Low blood sugar levels
• C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
• D. Progressive placental insufficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.

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