which is a physical integumentary risk among the elderly population

NCLEX-RN

Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. Which is a physical, integumentary risk among the elderly population?

A. Skin tears
B. Thickened skin
C. Thinning toe nails
D. Less nasal hair

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Skin tears are a physical integumentary risk among the elderly population. As individuals age, their skin becomes thinner and more fragile, making them susceptible to skin tears. Thickened skin, thinning toenails, and reduced nasal hair are common age-related changes but do not pose the same level of risk as skin tears. Thickened skin may provide some protection, thinning toenails are primarily a cosmetic concern, and reduced nasal hair does not typically lead to significant health risks.

2. A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?

A. Delirium
B. Muscle rigidity
C. Hypotension
D. Pinpoint rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.

3. A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?

A. Do nothing; this is a normal response
B. Strip the tubing to remove any clots
C. Place a clamp on the tube near the client's chest
D. Remove the collection chamber and connect the tubing to a new device

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.

4. During an adolescent examination, the nurse asks a 13-year-old female to bend forward at the waist with arms hanging freely. Which of the following assessments is the nurse most likely conducting?

A. Spinal flexibility
B. Leg length disparity
C. Hypostatic blood pressure
D. Scoliosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is scoliosis. During the assessment for scoliosis, the nurse asks the adolescent to bend forward at the waist with arms hanging freely to observe for any lateral deviation of the spine, uneven rib levels, or asymmetry. This assessment is a routine part of an adolescent examination, especially in females, as scoliosis is more common in this population. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Spinal flexibility is usually assessed through different maneuvers, leg length disparity is evaluated by measuring the length of the legs, and hypostatic blood pressure refers to a decrease in blood pressure due to immobility.

5. Which of the following statements best describes compartment syndrome?

A. An injury causes pain and tingling that starts in the buttock and travels down the leg.
B. An injury causes swelling within muscle tissue that leads to anoxia of nerves and muscles.
C. An injury causes permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint, resulting in deformity.
D. An injury causes pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Compartment syndrome is characterized by swelling and increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply to nerves and muscles. This can result from various causes, such as trauma or the application of a cast after a fracture. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to tissue necrosis. Choice A is incorrect as pain and tingling starting in the buttock and traveling down the leg are not specific features of compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint is unrelated to compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve do not describe compartment syndrome.