Nursing Elites

1. Which is a physical, integumentary risk among the elderly population?

• A. Skin tears
• B. Thickened skin
• C. Thinning toe nails
• D. Less nasal hair

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Skin tears are a physical integumentary risk among the elderly population. As individuals age, their skin becomes thinner and more fragile, making them susceptible to skin tears. Thickened skin, thinning toenails, and reduced nasal hair are common age-related changes but do not pose the same level of risk as skin tears. Thickened skin may provide some protection, thinning toenails are primarily a cosmetic concern, and reduced nasal hair does not typically lead to significant health risks.

2. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to maintain the patency of a client's nasogastric tube?

• A. Maintain a constant connection to low-intermittent suction
• B. Irrigate the tube as per physician's order
• C. Suction the mouth and nose every shift
• D. Perform a daily fecal occult blood sample

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to irrigate the tube as per physician's order. A client with a nasogastric tube is at risk of the tube kinking or clotting off, which can lead to complications such as abdominal distention or vomiting. To ensure the patency of the tube, the nurse should follow the physician's orders and facility policy to irrigate the tube with water or a solution as needed. Maintaining a constant connection to low-intermittent suction (Choice A) is not typically done to maintain tube patency. Suctioning the mouth and nose every shift (Choice C) is not directly related to maintaining nasogastric tube patency. Performing a daily fecal occult blood sample (Choice D) is unrelated to maintaining the patency of a nasogastric tube.

3. Which example best describes the concept of beneficence?

• A. A nurse provides pain medication for a client in the recovery room who is experiencing pain
• B. A client has an advanced directive in place stating that he does not want intubation if he needs CPR
• C. At the request of the client, a nurse does not inform the family about his cancer diagnosis
• D. A nurse withholds narcotic medication for a client in pain, knowing that he is currently disoriented

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beneficence is the ethical principle of doing good and acting in the best interest of the client. Providing pain relief to a client in the recovery room who is experiencing pain aligns with beneficence as it promotes the client's well-being and comfort. Choice B is related to autonomy, where the client's wishes regarding treatment are respected. Choice C involves confidentiality and the client's right to privacy. Choice D represents nonmaleficence, as withholding pain medication from a client in pain could cause harm and goes against the principle of doing no harm.

4. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.

5. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

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