NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. For which condition would electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) be used?
- A. Severe clinical depression
- B. Substance abuse disorders
- C. Antisocial personality disorder
- D. Psychosis occurring in schizophrenia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is indicated for severe clinical depression, especially in cases where clients do not respond well to psychotropic medications or require immediate intervention due to the severity of their depression. ECT is not typically used as a primary treatment for substance abuse disorders, antisocial personality disorder, or psychosis occurring in schizophrenia. While ECT is an effective intervention for severe depression, it is important to consider individual client needs and response to other treatment options before resorting to ECT.
2. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?
- A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
- B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
- C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
- D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.
3. When a man with dementia is admitted to a long-term care facility, his wife, who appears tired and angry, says in a sarcastic tone, 'Let's see what you can do with him.' Which response is therapeutic?
- A. It sounds like it's been difficult for you.'
- B. I don't understand what you mean.'
- C. 'I have experience with all types of clients.'
- D. It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the caregiver's feelings and challenges without blaming them. Option A, 'It sounds like it's been difficult for you,' shows empathy and opens the channel of communication. Options B and C, 'I don't understand what you mean' and 'I have experience with all types of clients,' are nurse-focused responses that block effective communication. Option D, 'It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner,' is a hostile response that shifts the blame to the caregiver, which is not therapeutic in this situation.
4. A health care provider discusses with a client the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy. After the health care provider leaves the room, the client tells the nurse about being relieved that only minor surgery is necessary. Which psychological process explains this client's reaction?
- A. Reflection
- B. Regression
- C. Repudiation
- D. Reconciliation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client's reaction of believing that only minor surgery is necessary when faced with the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy is an example of repudiation. Repudiation involves a refusal to acknowledge anticipated loss as a defense mechanism against the overwhelming stress of illness. The client is psychologically denying the seriousness of the situation. The other choices are incorrect because: - Reflection (Choice A) does not apply since the client is not contemplating the issues of the situation. - Regression (Choice B) is not demonstrated as the client's behavior does not indicate reverting to an earlier stage of development. - Reconciliation (Choice D) is not applicable as the client has not made a realistic adjustment to the illness but rather is in denial of its severity.
5. A client arrives at an occupational health clinic after being struck by lightning while working in a truck bed. The client is alert but reports feeling faint. Which assessment will the nurse perform first?
- A. Pulse characteristics
- B. Open airway
- C. Entrance and exit wounds
- D. Cervical spine injury
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing pulse characteristics is the priority in this situation due to the potential impact of lightning as a form of electrical current, which can cause irregular heart rhythms. It is crucial to evaluate the pulse rate and regularity to assess for adequate circulation and potential cardiac issues. Since the client is alert and talking, the airway is likely patent, making assessing the airway less urgent. Entrance and exit wounds and cervical spine injury assessments should follow the evaluation of pulse characteristics to ensure proper circulation and prioritize life-threatening issues first. Checking the pulse first will guide further interventions and help in determining the client's hemodynamic status.
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