NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. For which condition would electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) be used?
- A. Severe clinical depression
- B. Substance abuse disorders
- C. Antisocial personality disorder
- D. Psychosis occurring in schizophrenia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is indicated for severe clinical depression, especially in cases where clients do not respond well to psychotropic medications or require immediate intervention due to the severity of their depression. ECT is not typically used as a primary treatment for substance abuse disorders, antisocial personality disorder, or psychosis occurring in schizophrenia. While ECT is an effective intervention for severe depression, it is important to consider individual client needs and response to other treatment options before resorting to ECT.
2. What is the best intervention for a client with borderline personality disorder?
- A. Establishing clear boundaries
- B. Exploring vocational possibilities
- C. Discussing feelings of victimization
- D. Spending 1 to 2 hours per day with the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best intervention for a client with borderline personality disorder is to establish clear boundaries. Individuals with this disorder struggle with impulsivity and have difficulty recognizing and respecting boundaries in their relationships. By establishing clear boundaries, it helps provide structure and consistency to the client, aiding in their treatment and management of the disorder. Exploring vocational possibilities may be important at some point, but it is not the priority intervention for managing borderline personality disorder. Discussing feelings of victimization, while common, may not be as effective initially due to the client's lack of insight and resistance. Spending 1 to 2 hours per day with the client may not be as productive as shorter, more focused interactions that are geared towards boundary reinforcement.
3. Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper"? for no reason, starts "ranting"? and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
- C. Bipolar disorder
- D. Delusional disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes. This disorder is highly co-morbid with substance use, which can worsen the prognosis. While schizophrenia may involve aggression, it is not typically associated with mood episodes like mania that characterize bipolar disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is primarily characterized by re-experiencing traumatic events, avoidance behaviors, and hyperarousal, but not the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder. Delusional disorder is characterized by fixed false beliefs without the mood changes seen in bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is Bipolar disorder.
4. An older woman has lived alone since the death of her husband 10 years ago, and she has a long list of vague complaints. Which assessment is the priority for the home health nurse to perform?
- A. Assess for feelings of loneliness and isolation.
- B. Determine if the client has unresolved grief.
- C. Determine if there are safety issues.
- D. Ask about the availability of support systems.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority assessment for the home health nurse in this scenario is to determine if there are safety issues. The client is an older woman living alone with a long list of vague complaints, indicating several risk factors. Ensuring her safety should be the primary concern. While assessing for feelings of loneliness, isolation, or grief is important, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence due to her vulnerable situation. Although assessing the availability of support systems is essential in a home health assessment, safety issues must be addressed first given the client's profile.
5. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Reassure the client that many obese individuals have concerns about sex.
- B. Remind the client that sexual relationships can remain unaffected by obesity.
- C. Determine the frequency of sexual intercourse.
- D. Ask the client to talk about specific concerns.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Option D is the best response as it allows the client to express her specific concerns, providing the nurse with valuable assessment data. This open-ended question encourages the client to share her worries and feelings, which can guide the nurse in addressing her unique needs. Options A and B make assumptions about the client's concerns based on her weight, potentially invalidating her feelings and inhibiting effective communication. Option C is premature as understanding the client's concerns should precede discussions about the frequency of sexual intercourse, which may not address the core issues the client is facing.
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