NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?
- A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
- B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
- C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
- D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.
2. The nurse evaluates the client's progress and determines that one of the nursing diagnoses on the client's care plan has been resolved. How should the nurse document this so that it is best communicated to the healthcare team?
- A. Use Liquid PaperTM to 'white out' the resolved diagnosis on the care plan
- B. Recopy the care plan without the resolved diagnosis
- C. Write a nursing progress note indicating that the outcome goals have been achieved
- D. Draw a single line through the diagnosis on the care plan and write the nurse's initials and date
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To discontinue a diagnosis once it has been resolved, cross it off with a single line or highlight it, then write initials and date. Some agency forms may require the nurse to put date and initials in a 'Date Resolved' column. Using Liquid PaperTM is not a legal way to amend client records as it can obscure the original documentation. Recopying the care plan without the resolved diagnosis can lead to confusion and inaccuracies in the client's record. Writing a nursing progress note indicating that the outcome goals have been achieved is important but should not be the sole method used to communicate the resolution of a nursing diagnosis. Drawing a single line through the resolved diagnosis on the care plan and documenting the nurse's initials and date is the most effective way to communicate the resolution of a nursing diagnosis to the healthcare team.
3. The nurse assesses a 2-year-old who is admitted for dehydration and finds that the peripheral IV rate by gravity has slowed, even though the venous access site is healthy. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Apply a warm compress proximal to the site.
- B. Check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole.
- C. Adjust the tape that stabilizes the needle.
- D. Flush with normal saline and recount the drop rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When encountering a slowed peripheral IV rate, the nurse should initially check for common factors affecting infusion rates. Factors such as the height of the IV bag, presence of kinks in the tubing, needle size or position, client blood pressure, fluid viscosity, and infiltration can impact the rate. It is crucial to ensure the tubing is free of any kinks and that the IV pole is at an appropriate height to facilitate proper flow by gravity. Applying warmth proximal to the site might help with venospasm, but this intervention should come after ensuring proper tubing flow. Adjusting the tape that stabilizes the needle or flushing with normal saline may be necessary later in the troubleshooting process, but these actions should follow checking for kinks and adjusting the IV pole height, which are less invasive interventions.
4. What step should be taken when administering ear drops to an adult client?
- A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
- B. Hold the dropper 1 cm above the ear canal.
- C. Place a cotton ball into the outermost canal.
- D. Pull the auricle down and back.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct step when administering ear drops to an adult client is to place the client in a side-lying position (A). This position allows for easier administration of the drops and helps prevent spillage. The dropper should be held approximately 1 cm (� inch) above the ear canal (B) to ensure accurate delivery of the medication. Placing a cotton ball into the outermost canal (C) is unnecessary and may interfere with the absorption of the ear drops. Pulling the auricle down and back (D) is a technique used for children younger than 3 years old to straighten the ear canal, but it is not necessary for adults and may cause discomfort.
5. A client says, 'The doctors lied about me. They said I murdered my mother. You killed her. She died before I was born.' Which psychotic feature is the client experiencing?
- A. Ideas of grandeur
- B. Confusing illusions
- C. Persecutory delusions
- D. Auditory hallucinations
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is experiencing persecutory delusions, as she believes that others are blaming her for negative actions. This is not about ideas of grandeur, which involve feelings of greatness or power. Confusing illusions refer to misinterpretation of stimuli, which is not present in this scenario. Auditory hallucinations involve hearing voices, which is not the case here. In this case, the client is delusional, but not hallucinating.
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