Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?

• A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
• B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
• C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
• D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.

2. A toddler is 26 months old and has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erikson, which of the following stages is the toddler in?

• A. Trust vs. mistrust
• B. Initiative vs. guilt
• C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
• D. Intimacy vs. isolation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct stage for a toddler who is 26 months old, according to Erik Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, is Autonomy vs. shame and doubt. This stage occurs between 18 months to 3 years of age. During this stage, children are focused on developing a greater sense of control and independence. Choice A, Trust vs. mistrust, is the first stage occurring from birth to 18 months, where infants learn to trust or mistrust their caregivers based on their care. Choice B, Initiative vs. guilt, is the third stage occurring from 3 to 5 years, where children start to assert themselves more. Choice D, Intimacy vs. isolation, is a stage occurring in adulthood, not relevant to a toddler's development.

3. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Document that the client responds to the painful stimulus.
• B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
• D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.

4. A nurse is assigned to care for a close friend in the hospital setting. Which action should the nurse take first when given the assignment?

• A. Notify the friend that all medical information will be kept confidential.
• B. Explain the relationship to the charge nurse and ask for reassignment.
• C. Approach the client and ask if the assignment is uncomfortable.
• D. Accept the assignment but protect the client's confidentiality.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse is assigned to care for a close friend, it is essential to maintain professional boundaries to ensure the best care for the client and the nurse. The most appropriate action for the nurse to take first is to explain the relationship to the charge nurse and ask for reassignment (B). This is important to avoid potential conflicts of interest and maintain objectivity in the care provided. Option A, notifying the friend about confidentiality, may not address the underlying issue of the conflict of interest. Option C, asking the client if the assignment is uncomfortable, may not be appropriate as it puts the client in a difficult position. Option D, accepting the assignment but protecting the client's confidentiality, does not address the conflict of interest and potential ethical issues that may arise from caring for a close friend.

5. The nurse determines that a postoperative client's respiratory rate has increased from 18 to 24 breaths/min. Based on this assessment finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to increase ambulation in the room.
• B. Offer the client a high-carbohydrate snack for energy.
• C. Force fluids to thin the client's pulmonary secretions.
• D. Determine if pain is causing the client's tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a postoperative client's respiratory rate increases, it is essential to determine the underlying cause. Pain, anxiety, and fluid accumulation in the lungs can lead to tachypnea (increased respiratory rate). Therefore, the priority intervention is to assess if pain is the contributing factor. Encouraging increased ambulation may worsen oxygen desaturation in a client with a rising respiratory rate. Offering a high-carbohydrate snack is not indicated as it can increase carbon metabolism; instead, consider providing an alternative energy source like Pulmocare liquid supplement. Forcing fluids may exacerbate respiratory congestion in a client with a compromised cardiopulmonary system, potentially leading to fluid overload. Therefore, determining the role of pain in tachypnea is crucial for appropriate management.

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