NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?
- A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
- B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
- C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
- D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.
2. A client diagnosed with sexual dysfunction states, 'Well, I guess my sex life is over.' Which response would the nurse use as a reply?
- A. I'm sorry to hear that.'
- B. 'Oh, you have a lot of good years left.'
- C. 'You are concerned about your sex life?'
- D. 'Have you asked your primary health care provider about that?'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The response 'You are concerned about your sex life?' explores the meaning of the statement and allows further expression of concern. It shows empathy and encourages the client to elaborate on their feelings. Choice A, 'I'm sorry to hear that,' does not prompt the client to share more about their concerns and may close off communication. Choice B, 'Oh, you have a lot of good years left,' lacks empathy and understanding of the client's emotions, diverting the focus from the client's feelings. Choice D, 'Have you asked your primary health care provider about that?' shifts the responsibility away from the nurse and may not address the client's emotional needs, potentially making them feel dismissed or embarrassed to seek help.
3. Which risk factor for suicide is considered the most lethal?
- A. History of alcohol and drug abuse
- B. Previous high-lethality suicide attempts
- C. Recent withdrawal from friends
- D. Disturbance of family dynamics
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Previous high-lethality suicide attempts.' This is the most lethal risk factor as it indicates that the individual has previously attempted suicide in a manner that could lead to death. This history increases the likelihood of future attempts. While substance abuse, like alcohol and drug use, is a significant risk factor for suicide, it is not considered the most lethal. Withdrawal from friends or social isolation can contribute to suicide risk but is not as directly deadly as high-lethality attempts. Disturbance of family dynamics can also be a stressor but does not represent the immediate lethality associated with a history of high-lethality suicide attempts.
4. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?
- A. Individuals with this disorder respond well to small therapeutic groups.
- B. Therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious.
- C. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens increases as therapeutic group involvement increases.
- D. Involvement in small therapeutic groups may decrease the regression and dependency associated with institutionalization.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.
5. Which of the following is an example of passive aggression?
- A. Clenched fists
- B. Yelling
- C. Jealousy
- D. Intimidation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Passive aggression involves expressing negative feelings indirectly, such as through subtle actions or behaviors. While choices A, B, and D involve more direct and aggressive expressions of anger, jealousy is an example of passive aggression where negative emotions are subtly displayed without openly confronting the issue. Jealousy can manifest as resentment, envy, or possessiveness, and is a common form of passive aggression in interpersonal relationships.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access