NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. Which communication technique is a part of therapeutic communication?
- A. Asking for explanations
- B. Showing sympathy to the client
- C. Asking personal questions of the client
- D. Providing relevant information to the client
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is providing relevant information to the client. In therapeutic communication, it is essential to provide clients with all pertinent information to help them understand their health status and what to expect. This empowers clients and promotes trust in the nurse-client relationship. Asking for explanations, showing sympathy, and asking personal questions are examples of nontherapeutic communication techniques. Asking personal questions can intrude on the client's privacy and may not be relevant to their care. Showing sympathy, while well-intentioned, may come across as pity rather than true empathy. Asking for explanations can sometimes put clients on the defensive rather than fostering a collaborative dialogue.
2. Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?
- A. Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)
- B. Depression with melancholic features
- C. Major depressive episode with psychotic features
- D. Bipolar depression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.
3. The nurse notes bruises on the pregnant client's face and abdomen. There are no bruises on her legs and arms. Further assessment is required to confirm which condition?
- A. Domestic abuse
- B. Hydatidiform mole
- C. Excessive exercise
- D. Thrombocytopenic purpura
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Domestic abuse is a serious concern during pregnancy as it can escalate, and the bruises on the face and abdomen may indicate physical violence towards the pregnant woman. Hydatidiform mole presents with symptoms like an enlarged uterus for gestational age, hypertension, nausea, vomiting, and vaginal bleeding, not bruises. Excessive exercise typically leads to cardiovascular or pulmonary issues, not bruising. Thrombocytopenic purpura and other bleeding disorders usually present with bruises and petechiae on various body surfaces, not just limited to the face and abdomen.
4. After a needle stick occurs while removing the cap from a sterile needle, which action should the nurse take?
- A. Complete an incident report.
- B. Select another sterile needle.
- C. Disinfect the needle with an alcohol swab.
- D. Notify the supervisor of the department immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After a needle stick, the needle is considered contaminated and should be discarded. The nurse should select another sterile needle to use. Completing an incident report is not necessary in this situation because the needle was sterile when the nurse was stuck and not in contact with any other person's body fluids. Notifying the supervisor immediately is not required as the situation can be managed by selecting a new needle. Disinfecting the needle with an alcohol swab is not recommended as it does not meet the standards of safe practice and infection control.
5. When the health care provider diagnoses metastatic cancer and recommends a gastrostomy for an older female client in stable condition, the son tells the nurse that his mother must not be told the reason for the surgery because she 'can't handle' the cancer diagnosis. Which legal principle is the court most likely to uphold regarding this client's right to informed consent?
- A. The family cannot provide the consent required in this situation as the older adult is capable of making decisions.
- B. The son cannot waive informed consent for the client since there is no evidence of mental incompetence.
- C. The court will not allow the health care provider to make the decision to withhold informed consent under therapeutic privilege.
- D. If informed consent is withheld from a client, health care providers could be found guilty of negligence.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Health care providers may be found guilty of negligence, specifically assault and battery, if they carry out a treatment without the client's consent. The client's condition is stable, so the family cannot provide consent without her involvement, making option A incorrect. There is no evidence of mental incompetence in the client, so the son cannot waive informed consent, making option B incorrect. While therapeutic privilege may have been accepted in the past, it is unlikely to be upheld by today's courts, making option C incorrect. It is crucial for health care providers to obtain informed consent from clients before proceeding with any treatment to avoid legal consequences and uphold ethical standards.
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