Nursing Elites

1. When performing a physical assessment, what technique should the nurse always perform first?

• A. Palpation
• B. Inspection
• C. Percussion
• D. Auscultation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a physical assessment, the nurse should always begin with inspection. The sequence of techniques for physical examination is inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. These skills are performed in a specific order, except for the abdominal assessment where auscultation precedes palpation and percussion. Inspection allows the nurse to observe and gather initial information without direct contact. It is a crucial step that provides valuable insights before proceeding to palpation, percussion, and auscultation. Therefore, choice B, 'Inspection,' is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they should follow inspection in the sequence of a comprehensive physical assessment.

2. Mrs. D is a pregnant client who is 33 weeks' gestation and is admitted for bright red vaginal bleeding. Her physician suspects placenta previa. All of the following nursing interventions are appropriate for this client except:

• A. Institute complete bed rest for the client
• B. Assess uterine tone to determine condition
• C. Perform a vaginal exam to assess cervical dilation
• D. Measure and record blood loss each shift

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client with placenta previa has part of the placenta covering some or all of the cervical opening. Performing a vaginal exam for placenta previa may cause significant bleeding and should be avoided unless directed by a physician, and preparations are made for emergency delivery. **Choice A** is correct as complete bed rest is essential to decrease the risk of further bleeding. **Choice B** is appropriate as assessing uterine tone helps in determining the condition of the uterus and can provide important information for the healthcare team. **Choice D** is also a necessary intervention as monitoring and recording blood loss is crucial in assessing the client's condition and response to treatment.

3. An experienced healthcare professional instructs a new colleague on caring for a patient with dyspnea due to a pulmonary fungal infection. Which action by the new colleague indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. Listening to the patient's lung sounds several times during the shift
• B. Placing the patient in droplet precautions and in a private hospital room
• C. Increasing the oxygen flow rate to maintain oxygen saturation above 90%
• D. Monitoring the patient's serology results to identify the specific infecting organism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is placing the patient in droplet precautions and in a private hospital room. Fungal infections are not transmitted from person to person, so isolation procedures like droplet precautions are unnecessary. Listening to the patient's lung sounds, increasing the oxygen flow rate, and monitoring serology results are all appropriate actions in caring for a patient with dyspnea caused by a pulmonary fungal infection.

4. What is the proper personal protective equipment necessary for collecting a sputum specimen?

• A. Gloves and face mask
• B. Level Three Biocontainment uniforms
• C. Eye protection and shoe covers
• D. Splash shield and face mask

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When collecting a sputum specimen, it is crucial to protect against potential airborne droplets that may spread disease. The best personal protective equipment for this task includes gloves and a face mask. Gloves help prevent the spread of contaminants through hand contact, while a face mask protects the respiratory tract from inhaling infectious agents. Choice B, Level Three Biocontainment uniforms, is excessive and unnecessary for routine sputum specimen collection. Choice C, eye protection and shoe covers, does not address the specific risks associated with sputum collection. Choice D, splash shield and face mask, provides additional protection that is not typically required for sputum specimen collection, making it less appropriate than gloves and a face mask.

5. A urine pregnancy test:

• A. May be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive.
• B. Is positive only during the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. Will be negative if the amount of LH isn't enough to meet or exceed the sensitivity of the testing device.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine pregnancy test detects HCG in a pregnant woman's urine. Blood levels of HCG are usually higher and register earlier than HCG levels in the urine. Choice A is correct because urine pregnancy tests may be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive due to the differences in HCG levels in blood and urine. Choice B is incorrect because a urine pregnancy test can be positive throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect because LH (luteinizing hormone) is not the hormone detected in a pregnancy test; it is HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). Choice D is incorrect because not all the statements provided are true.

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