Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is the most likely cause of constipation in a client?

• A. Postponing bowel movement when the urge to defecate occurs
• B. Intestinal infection
• C. Antibiotic use
• D. Food allergies

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to postpone bowel movement when the urge to defecate occurs. Clients who delay bowel movements by ignoring the urge to defecate or not evacuating promptly, such as in situations where they are not near a bathroom, are at higher risk of developing constipation. This behavior leads to a decrease in bowel movement frequency, slowed intestinal motility, and increased fecal water absorption, resulting in hard, dry stools that are difficult to pass. Intestinal infection (choice B), antibiotic use (choice C), and food allergies (choice D) are less likely to be direct causes of constipation compared to postponing bowel movements.

2. An older adult patient brought to the emergency department by a family member is wandering outside, saying, "I can't find my way home."? The patient is confused and unable to answer questions. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Document the patient's mental status and obtain other assessment data from the family member.
• B. Record the patient's answers to questions on the nursing assessment form.
• C. Ask an advanced practice nurse to perform the assessment interview.
• D. Call for a mental health advocate to maintain the patient's rights.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient is confused and unable to answer questions. When the patient is unable to provide information, it is important to use secondary sources such as family members. The nurse's best action is to document the patient's mental status and obtain additional assessment data from the family member. This approach will help gather relevant information about the patient's condition. Asking an advanced practice nurse to perform the assessment interview is not necessary as it is within the staff nurse's scope of practice. Calling for a mental health advocate is also unnecessary at this point as the priority is to assess the patient's condition and gather information from the family member.

3. A client is having difficulties reading an educational pamphlet. He cannot find his glasses. In order to read the words, he must hold the pamphlet at arm's length, which allows him to read the information. Which vision deficit does this client most likely suffer from?

• A. Cataracts
• B. Glaucoma
• C. Astigmatism
• D. Presbyopia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Presbyopia is a condition that occurs when the lens of the eye loses accommodation and is unable to focus light on objects nearby. As a result, clients are unable to see or read items up close but may have success when holding the same item at arm's length. Many clients with presbyopia must wear bifocals, but long-distance vision remains unaffected. Cataracts involve clouding of the eye's lens, leading to blurry vision. Glaucoma is associated with increased intraocular pressure that damages the optic nerve, causing vision loss. Astigmatism is a refractive error where the cornea or lens has an irregular shape, leading to distorted or blurred vision.

4. Which type of shock is related to low blood volume?

• A. Psychogenic
• B. Cardiogenic
• C. Anaphylactic
• D. Hemorrhagic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hemorrhagic shock, also known as hypovolemic shock, is directly related to low blood volume due to significant blood loss. In hemorrhagic shock, the body's circulating blood volume is reduced, leading to inadequate perfusion of tissues and organs. Psychogenic shock is caused by emotional distress, not blood volume changes. Cardiogenic shock results from heart failure, not low blood volume. Anaphylactic shock is due to a severe allergic reaction, not a reduction in blood volume.

5. Which technique is correct when assessing the radial pulse of a patient?

• A. Palpate for 1 minute if the rhythm is irregular.
• B. Palpate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 if the rhythm is regular.
• C. Palpate for 2 full minutes to detect any variation in amplitude.
• D. Palpate for 10 seconds and multiply by 6 if the rhythm is regular and the patient has no history of cardiac abnormalities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing the radial pulse, if the rhythm is irregular, the pulse should be counted for a full minute to get an accurate representation of the pulse rate. In cases where the rhythm is regular, the recommended technique is to palpate for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4 to calculate the beats per minute. This method is more accurate and efficient for normal or rapid heart rates. Palpating for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not as effective, as any error in counting results in a larger discrepancy in the calculated heart rate. Palpating for 2 full minutes is excessive and not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Palpating for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6 is not a standard technique and may lead to inaccuracies, especially in patients with cardiac abnormalities.

Similar Questions