Nursing Elites

1. In which of the following ways can a nurse promote sleep for a client experiencing insomnia?

• A. Assist the client in using the bathroom one hour after going to bed
• B. Give the client a massage before bedtime
• C. Tuck bed sheets and blankets tightly around the client once settled in bed
• D. Give the client a pair of socks to wear if their feet become cold

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A nurse can promote sleep for a client experiencing insomnia by addressing factors that may hinder sleep. Cold feet can disrupt sleep, so providing the client with socks to keep their feet warm can enhance comfort and aid in promoting sleep. The correct answer focuses on a direct intervention to address a specific issue that can impact sleep quality. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the issue of cold feet, which is a common problem that can interfere with sleep in individuals with insomnia. Assisting the client to use the bathroom, giving a massage in the morning, or tucking in bed sheets tightly do not target the discomfort caused by cold feet, making them less effective interventions for promoting sleep in this scenario.

2. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

3. Which technique is correct when assessing the radial pulse of a patient?

• A. Palpate for 1 minute if the rhythm is irregular.
• B. Palpate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 if the rhythm is regular.
• C. Palpate for 2 full minutes to detect any variation in amplitude.
• D. Palpate for 10 seconds and multiply by 6 if the rhythm is regular and the patient has no history of cardiac abnormalities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing the radial pulse, if the rhythm is irregular, the pulse should be counted for a full minute to get an accurate representation of the pulse rate. In cases where the rhythm is regular, the recommended technique is to palpate for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4 to calculate the beats per minute. This method is more accurate and efficient for normal or rapid heart rates. Palpating for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not as effective, as any error in counting results in a larger discrepancy in the calculated heart rate. Palpating for 2 full minutes is excessive and not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Palpating for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6 is not a standard technique and may lead to inaccuracies, especially in patients with cardiac abnormalities.

4. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

5. The nurse is preparing to examine a 6-year-old child. Which action is most appropriate?

• A. The child is asked to undress from the waist up.
• B. The head is examined before the thorax, abdomen, and genitalia.
• C. The nurse should keep in mind that a child at this age will have a sense of modesty.
• D. Talking about the equipment being used is avoided to prevent increasing the child's anxiety.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When examining a 6-year-old child, it is important to consider their sense of modesty. The child should undress themselves, leaving underpants on and using a gown or drape to maintain privacy. Additionally, a school-age child like a 6-year-old is curious about how equipment works, so it is beneficial to explain the purpose and function of the tools being used. The examination sequence should typically progress from the child's head to the toes to ensure a thorough assessment. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the appropriate approach to examining a 6-year-old child.

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