Nursing Elites

1. In which of the following ways can a nurse promote sleep for a client experiencing insomnia?

• A. Assist the client in using the bathroom one hour after going to bed
• B. Give the client a massage before bedtime
• C. Tuck bed sheets and blankets tightly around the client once settled in bed
• D. Give the client a pair of socks to wear if their feet become cold

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A nurse can promote sleep for a client experiencing insomnia by addressing factors that may hinder sleep. Cold feet can disrupt sleep, so providing the client with socks to keep their feet warm can enhance comfort and aid in promoting sleep. The correct answer focuses on a direct intervention to address a specific issue that can impact sleep quality. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the issue of cold feet, which is a common problem that can interfere with sleep in individuals with insomnia. Assisting the client to use the bathroom, giving a massage in the morning, or tucking in bed sheets tightly do not target the discomfort caused by cold feet, making them less effective interventions for promoting sleep in this scenario.

2. You are preparing to admit a patient with a seizure disorder. Which of the following actions can you delegate to an LPN/LVN?

• A. Complete admission assessment.
• B. Set up oxygen and suction equipment.
• C. Place a padded tongue blade at the bedside.
• D. Pad the side rails before the patient arrives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to delegate the task of setting up oxygen and suction equipment to the LPN/LVN. This task falls within their scope of practice and can be safely performed by them. Completing the admission assessment (Choice A) typically requires a higher level of assessment and critical thinking, making it more appropriate for a registered nurse. Placing a padded tongue blade at the bedside (Choice C) involves potential airway management, which is a more complex task and should be done by a higher-level provider. Padding the side rails before the patient arrives (Choice D) is a task related to patient safety and should be done by the healthcare team as a whole, not solely delegated to an LPN/LVN.

3. A 4-month-old child is at the clinic for a well-baby checkup and immunizations. Which of these actions is most appropriate when the nurse is assessing an infant's vital signs?

• A. The infant's radial pulse should be palpated, and the nurse should notice any fluctuations resulting from activity or exercise.
• B. The nurse should auscultate an apical rate for 1 minute and then assess for any normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia.
• C. The infant's blood pressure should be assessed by using a stethoscope with a large diaphragm piece to hear the soft muffled Korotkoff sounds.
• D. The infant's chest should be observed and the respiratory rate counted for 1 minute; the respiratory pattern may vary significantly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse auscultates an apical rate, not a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers. The pulse should be counted by listening to the heart for 1 full minute to account for normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia. Children younger than 3 years of age have such small arm vessels; consequently, hearing Korotkoff sounds with a stethoscope is difficult. The nurse should use either an electronic blood pressure device that uses oscillometry or a Doppler ultrasound device to amplify the sounds. An infant's respiratory rate should be assessed by observing the infant's abdomen, not chest, because an infant's respirations are normally more diaphragmatic than thoracic. The nurse should auscultate an apical heart rate, not palpate a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers.

4. A second-year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most significant action that the nursing student should take?

• A. Immediately see a social worker
• B. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
• C. Start prophylactic Pentamidine treatment
• D. Seek counseling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Starting prophylactic AZT treatment is the most critical intervention in this scenario. Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiretroviral medication used to prevent and treat HIV/AIDS by reducing the replication of the virus. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV involves taking medication to suppress the virus and prevent infection after exposure. PEP should be initiated within 72 hours of potential HIV exposure to be effective. Seeking treatment quickly is crucial to enhance its effectiveness. Seeing a social worker (Choice A) may be helpful for emotional support but is not the immediate priority. Pentamidine treatment (Choice C) is not indicated for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV. Seeking counseling (Choice D) is important for the nursing student's emotional well-being but does not address the urgent need for post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent HIV transmission.

5. During an assessment, a nurse asks a patient, "If you had fever and vomiting for 3 days, what would you do?"? Which aspect of the mental status examination is the nurse assessing?

• A. Behavior
• B. Cognition
• C. Affect and mood
• D. Perceptual disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse is assessing cognition in this scenario. Cognition involves evaluating a patient's judgment and decision-making abilities. By asking the patient what they would do in a specific situation, the nurse aims to determine the patient's cognitive function. A correct response indicating intact cognition would involve a decision like 'Call my doctor.' If the patient suggests inappropriate actions like 'I would stop eating' or 'I would just wait and see what happened,' it would suggest impaired judgment. The other options, behavior, affect and mood, and perceptual disturbances, refer to different aspects of the mental status examination and are not directly assessed through this question.

Similar Questions