Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a pulse, what should be noted?

• A. Rate
• B. Rate and quality
• C. Rate, quality, and fullness
• D. Rate, quality, fullness, and regularity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a pulse, it is important to note the rate (number of beats per minute), quality (regular or irregular), and fullness (thread and weak or full and bounding). These aspects provide crucial information about the patient's cardiovascular status. Regularity, as mentioned in option D, is not typically assessed during a pulse check and is not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Choice A is too limited as it overlooks important aspects beyond just the rate. Choice B improves by adding quality but still lacks the fullness aspect. Choice C is the most comprehensive and accurate as it includes all three essential aspects for a thorough pulse assessment.

2. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

3. The nurse supervises unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who are providing care for a patient with right lower lobe pneumonia. The nurse should intervene if which action by UAP is observed?

• A. UAP splint the patient's chest during coughing.
• B. UAP assist the patient to ambulate to the bathroom.
• C. UAP help the patient to a bedside chair for meals.
• D. UAP lower the head of the patient's bed to 15 degrees.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to intervene in is when the UAP lowers the head of the patient's bed to 15 degrees. This position can decrease ventilation in a patient with pneumonia, potentially worsening their condition. Choices B and C involve assisting the patient with activities of daily living and promoting mobility, which are appropriate for the patient's care. Choice A, splinting the patient's chest during coughing, can help the patient manage coughing effectively, which is also appropriate for a patient with pneumonia.

4. When is the best time for the nurse to attempt to elicit the Moro reflex during an infant examination?

• A. When the infant is sleeping
• B. At the end of the examination
• C. Before auscultation of the thorax
• D. At about the middle of the examination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is best elicited at the end of the examination because it can cause the infant to cry. This reflex is triggered by a sudden change in position or loud noise, and it involves the infant's arms extending and then coming back together as if embracing. By eliciting this reflex at the end of the examination, the nurse can observe the infant's response and ensure that the examination is completed without unnecessary distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the Moro reflex is typically elicited at the end of the examination to avoid disrupting the assessment process and causing unnecessary discomfort to the infant.

5. How does the procedure for taking a pulse rate on an infant differ from an adult?

• A. Pulse rates are taken on infants using a different method.
• B. The apical pulse method is used on infants.
• C. Pulse rates on infants are taken with a sphygmomanometer.
• D. Pulse rates on infants are taken apically in the third intercostal space.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The apical pulse method is used on infants. This method involves placing a stethoscope in the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, and counting the beats for a full minute. It is a preferred method for infants due to their small size and the difficulty in palpating peripheral pulses accurately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as pulse rates are indeed taken on infants, albeit using a different method. Choice C is incorrect as a sphygmomanometer is typically used for measuring blood pressure, not pulse rates. Choice D is incorrect as pulse rates on infants are usually taken apically in the fifth intercostal space, not the third.

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