Nursing Elites

1. As a nurse, you have been assigned to take over as charge nurse without any report after the previous charge nurse fell during her shift and was taken to the emergency room. At the end of the shift, you have made the assignments for the next shift's nurses and posted them. As the nurses come in, they begin to complain that the assignments make no sense based on patient acuity. One refuses to take her assignment and threatens to go home. What could you have done to prevent their dissatisfaction?

• A. Reviewed the notes of the previous charge nurse
• B. Tried to contact the previous charge nurse in the emergency room
• C. Collaborated with the nurse manager
• D. Collaborated with the other nurses on your shift

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Collaborating with the other nurses on your shift would have permitted them to provide the most updated information regarding patient status and acuity. Requesting their input into creating assignments would have provided shared governance and assurance that the unit staffing was arranged appropriately. Reviewing the notes of the previous charge nurse might not capture the real-time changes in patient conditions. Trying to contact the previous charge nurse in the emergency room may not be feasible or timely. Collaborating with the nurse manager could be helpful, but involving the nurses directly impacted by the assignments would have been more effective in addressing their concerns and ensuring appropriate patient care.

2. While caring for a client in labor, a nurse attaches an electronic fetal monitor to the client's abdomen to assess the baby's heart rate. The nurse observes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction and does not return to normal limits until after the contraction is complete. What type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?

• A. Variable decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Early decelerations
• D. Accelerations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations are characterized by the baby's heart rate declining in utero during contractions. The heart rate drops below baseline and stays low until after the contraction ends. Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can compromise fetal oxygenation. This pattern is a non-reassuring sign and requires immediate intervention. Variable decelerations are typically abrupt decreases in heart rate, often associated with cord compression. Early decelerations, on the other hand, mirror the contractions and are considered benign, resulting from fetal head compression. Accelerations are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, indicating a responsive and healthy fetal nervous system.

3. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

4. A physician is explaining a procedure to a patient that may cure her recurring Staph infection. The doctor explains how the procedure is done, what to expect, the odds of the procedure curing the infection, and possible side effects and risks. The physician is:

• A. Preparing the patient to give informed consent.
• B. Protecting HIPAA by listing all the steps of the procedure with the risks involved.
• C. Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is preparing the patient to give informed consent. Giving informed consent is the process of providing a patient with all necessary information about a medical procedure, including how it's done, what to expect, the likelihood of success, and potential risks and side effects. This allows the patient to make an informed decision about their treatment. Protecting HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) involves safeguarding patient health information and is not directly related to the scenario described. It is important for physicians to inform patients of any alternative therapies available to them to ensure they have all relevant information to make a decision regarding their treatment. Therefore, choice C, 'Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies,' is incorrect. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as the physician is indeed preparing the patient for informed consent.

5. Which of the following is the most appropriate example of anticipatory guidance for a 16-year-old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture?

• A. Changes associated with puberty
• B. Driving and staying safe
• C. The health hazards of smoking
• D. Social media influences

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anticipatory guidance is an educational process that provides information important to a client's situation. When considering a 16-year-old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture, the most suitable anticipatory guidance would be regarding driving and staying safe. This guidance is crucial as it is age-appropriate and relevant to preventing future injuries. Choices A, C, and D are less pertinent in this scenario. Changes associated with puberty, health hazards of smoking, and social media influences may not directly address the immediate safety concerns of a 16-year-old with an ankle fracture.

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