Nursing Elites

1. When is cleft palate repair usually performed in children?

• A. A cleft palate cannot be repaired in children.
• B. Repair is usually performed by age 8 weeks.
• C. Repair is usually performed by 2 months of age.
• D. Repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cleft palate repair timing is individualized based on the severity of the deformity and the child's size. Typically, cleft palate repair is performed between 6 months and 2 years of age. This age range allows for optimal outcomes and is often done before 12 months to promote normal speech development. Early closure of the cleft palate helps to facilitate speech development. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because a cleft palate can be repaired in children, and repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years of age, not at 8 weeks or 2 months.

2. The nurse is teaching parents about the treatment plan for a 2-week-old infant with Tetralogy of Fallot. While awaiting future surgery, the nurse instructs the parents to immediately report

• A. Loss of consciousness
• B. Feeding problems
• C. Poor weight gain
• D. Fatigue with crying

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Loss of consciousness.' While parents should report any concerning observations, they need to call the healthcare provider immediately if the infant experiences a loss of consciousness. This change in alertness may indicate anoxia, which can be life-threatening. Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart defect characterized by four main features: pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. Surgery for Tetralogy of Fallot may be delayed or done in stages. Reporting loss of consciousness is crucial due to the potential seriousness of the condition. Feeding problems, poor weight gain, and fatigue with crying are important issues but do not require immediate reporting like loss of consciousness does.

3. A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is

• A. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery.
• B. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator.
• C. Procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow.
• D. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that involves compressing plaque against the wall of a diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is a minimally invasive procedure performed during a cardiac catheterization to open blockages in the coronary arteries. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery refers to procedures like coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), not PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator is a different intervention used for managing cardiac arrhythmias, not for improving coronary blood flow. A non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart would typically refer to procedures like a cardiac CT scan or an MRI, not PTCA.

4. The parents of a newborn with hypospadias are reviewing the treatment plan with the nurse. Which statement by the parents indicates their understanding of the plan?

• A. Caution should be used when straddling my infant on a hip.
• B. Vital signs should be taken daily to check for bladder infection.
• C. Catheterization will be necessary when my infant does not void.
• D. Circumcision has been delayed to save tissue for surgical repair.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital defect involving abnormal placement of the urethral orifice of the penis. In hypospadias, the urethral orifice is located below the glans penis along the ventral surface. It's important not to circumcise the infant, as the dorsal foreskin tissue will be required for surgical repair of the hypospadias. Option A is unrelated to the treatment plan for hypospadias. Option B is not directly related to the surgical repair of hypospadias. Option C is not a routine part of the treatment plan for hypospadias, as catheterization is usually managed by healthcare professionals.

5. A patient asks the nurse whether he is a good candidate to use a CPAP machine. The nurse reviews the client's history. Which condition would contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine?

• A. The patient is in the late stage of dementia.
• B. The patient has a history of bronchitis.
• C. The patient has had suicidal gestures/attempts in the past.
• D. The patient is on beta-blockers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient is in the late stage of dementia. In late-stage dementia, individuals may have an inability to follow commands and understand instructions independently, which are essential for proper installation and use of a CPAP machine. This makes using a CPAP machine challenging and potentially ineffective for patients in this condition. Choice B, having a history of bronchitis, does not contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. In fact, CPAP therapy can be beneficial for patients with respiratory conditions like bronchitis. Choice C, a history of suicidal gestures/attempts, while concerning for the patient's mental health, does not directly contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. Choice D, being on beta-blockers, is not a contraindication for CPAP machine use. Beta-blockers are commonly used medications for various conditions and do not interfere with the use of a CPAP machine.

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