Nursing Elites

1. Which goal has the highest priority in the plan of care for a 26-year-old homeless patient admitted with viral hepatitis who has severe anorexia and fatigue?

• A. Increase activity level.
• B. Maintain adequate nutrition
• C. Establish a stable environment
• D. Identify sources of hepatitis exposure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The highest priority outcome is to maintain adequate nutrition because it is essential for hepatocyte regeneration. In viral hepatitis, the liver is affected, and proper nutrition supports the liver's function and regeneration. While increasing activity level and establishing a stable environment are important, they are not as urgent as ensuring the patient receives proper nutrition. Identifying sources of hepatitis exposure can help prevent future infections, but in the acute phase, the immediate focus should be on providing adequate nutrition to support the patient's recovery.

2. A child is hospitalized because of persistent vomiting. The nurse should monitor the child closely for which problem?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Metabolic acidosis
• C. Metabolic alkalosis
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario of persistent vomiting, the child is at risk of developing metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of hydrochloric acid. Vomiting leads to the loss of gastric acid, resulting in an imbalance that causes metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic acidosis is incorrect as it would occur in a child with diarrhea due to the loss of bicarbonate. While diarrhea can sometimes be associated with vomiting, in this case, the primary focus is on the effects of vomiting. Hyperactive bowel sounds are not typically associated with vomiting, making this choice less relevant to the situation described.

3. A child is suspected of suffering from intussusception. The nurse should be alert to which clinical manifestation of this condition?

• A. Tender, distended abdomen
• B. Presence of fecal incontinence
• C. Incomplete development of the anus
• D. Infrequent and difficult passage of dry stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intussusception is an invagination of a section of the intestine into the distal bowel, and it is the most common cause of bowel obstruction in children aged 3 months to 6 years. A tender, distended abdomen is a typical clinical manifestation of intussusception. The presence of fecal incontinence is not a characteristic presentation of intussusception; it describes encopresis, which generally affects preschool and school-aged children but is not specific to intussusception. Incomplete development of the anus describes imperforate anus, a disorder diagnosed in the neonatal period, not intussusception. The infrequent and difficult passage of dry stools is characteristic of constipation, a common issue in children that can occur at any age, although it often peaks at 2 to 3 years old.

4. An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend?

• A. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone.
• B. Referral to a surgeon for repair.
• C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
• D. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. In most cases, the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary. Massaging the groin area (Choice A) is not recommended as it will not help in the resolution of the hydrocele. Referral to a surgeon (Choice B) is not necessary at this stage since hydroceles often resolve on their own in infants. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position (Choice D) does not aid in the reabsorption of fluid and is not a recommended intervention for hydrocele management.

5. A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

• A. Blood sugar check
• B. CT scan
• C. Blood cultures
• D. Arterial blood gases

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection. Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.

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