Nursing Elites

1. Which goal has the highest priority in the plan of care for a 26-year-old homeless patient admitted with viral hepatitis who has severe anorexia and fatigue?

• A. Increase activity level.
• B. Maintain adequate nutrition
• C. Establish a stable environment
• D. Identify sources of hepatitis exposure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The highest priority outcome is to maintain adequate nutrition because it is essential for hepatocyte regeneration. In viral hepatitis, the liver is affected, and proper nutrition supports the liver's function and regeneration. While increasing activity level and establishing a stable environment are important, they are not as urgent as ensuring the patient receives proper nutrition. Identifying sources of hepatitis exposure can help prevent future infections, but in the acute phase, the immediate focus should be on providing adequate nutrition to support the patient's recovery.

2. To prevent a Valsalva maneuver in a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse would:

• A. Assist the client in using the bedside commode
• B. Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed
• C. Administer antidysrhythmics PRN as prescribed
• D. Maintain the client on strict bed rest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering stool softeners daily as prescribed is essential to prevent straining during defecation, which can lead to a Valsalva maneuver. Straining can increase intra-abdominal pressure, hinder venous return, and elevate blood pressure, risking cardiac complications in a client recovering from a heart attack. Using a bedside commode might be useful to minimize exertion during toileting but does not directly address the risk of a Valsalva maneuver. Administering antidysrhythmics PRN is not the primary intervention for preventing a Valsalva maneuver; these medications are used to manage dysrhythmias if they occur. Keeping the client on strict bed rest is not the best option as early mobilization is encouraged in post-myocardial infarction recovery to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis and muscle weakness.

3. The physician has decided to perform a thoracentesis based on Mr. R's assessment. Which of the following actions from the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Instruct the client not to talk during the procedure
• B. Assist the client to sit upright or slightly lean forward
• C. Insert a 20-gauge needle just above the 4th intercostal space
• D. Connect the needle to suction to remove fluid that has collected in the pleural space

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client not to talk during the procedure. This is important to prevent air from being drawn into the pleural space during the thoracentesis. Choice B is incorrect because the client should be sitting upright or slightly leaning forward during the procedure to facilitate access to the pleural space. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse should not perform the thoracentesis procedure, which involves inserting a needle into the pleural space - this is the physician's responsibility. Choice D is incorrect as connecting the needle to suction to remove fluid is not the appropriate procedure for a thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is typically done to remove fluid or air for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes, not to connect to suction to remove fluid that has collected in the pleural space.

4. When obtaining a health history and physical assessment for a 36-year-old female patient with possible multiple sclerosis (MS), the nurse should

• A. assess for the presence of chest pain.
• B. inquire about urinary tract problems.
• C. inspect the skin for rashes or discoloration.
• D. ask the patient about any increase in libido.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a patient for possible multiple sclerosis (MS), it is important to inquire about urinary tract problems as they are common symptoms of the condition, such as incontinence or retention. Chest pain is not typically associated with MS, so assessing for its presence is not a priority. Inspecting the skin for rashes or discoloration is not a typical manifestation of MS. Additionally, a decrease in libido, rather than an increase, is more commonly seen in patients with MS. Therefore, the most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to inquire about urinary tract problems.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour
• B. Periodic crying and irritability
• C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier
• D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. The concern is the possibility of hyperkalemia, which could occur with continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output since potassium is excreted via the kidneys. It is crucial to monitor urinary output in pediatric patients receiving potassium-containing IV solutions to prevent electrolyte imbalances and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the most critical findings that require immediate reporting. '3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour' may suggest a need for antiemetic therapy or further assessment of the underlying cause but does not pose an immediate risk like the potential electrolyte imbalance from decreased urinary output. 'Periodic crying and irritability' and 'Vigorous sucking on a pacifier' are common behaviors in infants and are not indicative of a critical condition that requires urgent attention in this scenario.

Similar Questions