Nursing Elites

1. Which goal has the highest priority in the plan of care for a 26-year-old homeless patient admitted with viral hepatitis who has severe anorexia and fatigue?

• A. Increase activity level.
• B. Maintain adequate nutrition
• C. Establish a stable environment
• D. Identify sources of hepatitis exposure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The highest priority outcome is to maintain adequate nutrition because it is essential for hepatocyte regeneration. In viral hepatitis, the liver is affected, and proper nutrition supports the liver's function and regeneration. While increasing activity level and establishing a stable environment are important, they are not as urgent as ensuring the patient receives proper nutrition. Identifying sources of hepatitis exposure can help prevent future infections, but in the acute phase, the immediate focus should be on providing adequate nutrition to support the patient's recovery.

2. A nurse is caring for a 2-day-old infant who has a bilirubin level of 19 mg/dl. The physician has ordered phototherapy. Which of the following actions indicates correct preparation of the infant for this procedure?

• A. Undress the baby down to a diaper and hat
• B. Place the baby in his mother's arms before turning on the light
• C. Position the phototherapy light approximately 3 inches above the baby's skin
• D. Secure eye protection for the infant without occluding the nose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phototherapy is used to treat high levels of bilirubin among infants, typically evidenced as jaundice. The nurse must position the infant carefully during this procedure to maximize the benefits of the light therapy while protecting the baby. Placing protective eyewear over the baby's eyes without covering the nose is crucial to shield the eyes from the ultraviolet light. Undressing the baby down to a diaper and hat (Choice A) is a standard practice to maximize skin exposure to the phototherapy light. Placing the baby in his mother's arms before turning on the light (Choice B) is not necessary for the preparation of the infant for phototherapy. Positioning the phototherapy light approximately 3 inches above the baby's skin (Choice C) is incorrect as the distance should be as recommended by the healthcare provider based on the manufacturer's instructions.

3. Renal failure is broadly divided into specific categories. Which type is the type II diabetic patient most likely to experience secondary to diabetes?

• A. Acute renal failure (ARF)
• B. Intermittent renal failure (IRF)
• C. Chronic renal failure (CRF)
• D. Reversible renal failure (RRF)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication in type II diabetic patients, leading to chronic renal failure (CRF). Chronic renal failure (CRF) and acute renal failure (ARF) are the two main categories of renal failure. CRF can result from various conditions including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, connective tissue disorders, and amyloidosis. Unlike acute renal failure, chronic renal failure is irreversible. Timely treatment of ARF can often lead to reversibility, but CRF may require renal replacement therapy (RRT) or kidney transplant. Therefore, the correct answer is chronic renal failure (CRF). Intermittent renal failure (IRF) and reversible renal failure (RRF) are not recognized medical terms for distinct types of renal failure, making choices B and D incorrect.

4. A patient underwent fiberoptic colonoscopy 18 hours ago and presents to the emergency department with increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Which of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern?

• A. Bowel perforation
• B. Viral gastroenteritis
• C. Colon cancer
• D. Diverticulitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bowel perforation. Bowel perforation is the most serious complication of fiberoptic colonoscopy, with signs such as progressive abdominal pain, fever, chills, and tachycardia indicating advancing peritonitis. Although colonoscopic perforation is rare (0.03% to 0.7% incidence), it can lead to high mortality and morbidity rates. Viral gastroenteritis (Choice B) typically presents with symptoms like diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps, but it is not the most immediate concern in this scenario. Colon cancer (Choice C) and diverticulitis (Choice D) are important conditions but are less likely to present acutely after colonoscopy compared to bowel perforation.

5. A 33-year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week. Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?

• A. Weight gain of 5 pounds
• B. Edema of the ankles
• C. Gastric irritability
• D. Decreased appetite

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased appetite.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure, where it helps reduce fluid retention. One common side effect of furosemide is hypokalemia, which can lead to decreased appetite among other symptoms. Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood, and its signs and symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, reduced urine osmolality, and altered level of consciousness. Weight gain and ankle edema are actually expected outcomes of furosemide therapy due to its diuretic effect, which helps reduce edema and fluid overload. Gastric irritability is a nonspecific symptom that is not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, a decreased appetite is a key indicator of a potential negative side effect when assessing a client on furosemide therapy.

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