NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. Which goal has the highest priority in the plan of care for a 26-year-old homeless patient admitted with viral hepatitis who has severe anorexia and fatigue?
- A. Increase activity level.
- B. Maintain adequate nutrition
- C. Establish a stable environment
- D. Identify sources of hepatitis exposure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The highest priority outcome is to maintain adequate nutrition because it is essential for hepatocyte regeneration. In viral hepatitis, the liver is affected, and proper nutrition supports the liver's function and regeneration. While increasing activity level and establishing a stable environment are important, they are not as urgent as ensuring the patient receives proper nutrition. Identifying sources of hepatitis exposure can help prevent future infections, but in the acute phase, the immediate focus should be on providing adequate nutrition to support the patient's recovery.
2. A thirty-five-year-old male has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
- A. Atherosclerosis
- B. Diabetic nephropathy
- C. Autonomic neuropathy
- D. Somatic neuropathy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is autonomic neuropathy. Autonomic neuropathy affects the autonomic nerves, which control various bodily functions including the bladder. In diabetes, it can lead to bladder paralysis, resulting in symptoms like urgency to urinate and difficulty initiating urination. Atherosclerosis (choice A) is a condition involving the hardening and narrowing of arteries, not directly related to the inability to urinate in this context. Diabetic nephropathy (choice B) primarily affects the kidneys, leading to kidney damage, but does not typically cause urinary retention. Somatic neuropathy (choice D) involves damage to sensory nerves, not the autonomic nerves responsible for bladder control, making it less likely to be the cause of the urinary issue described in the question.
3. The healthcare professional in the Emergency Room is treating a patient suspected to have a Peptic Ulcer. On assessing lab results, the healthcare professional finds that the patient's blood pressure is 95/60, pulse is 110 beats per minute, and the patient reports epigastric pain. What is the PRIORITY intervention?
- A. Start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm
- B. Ask the patient for a stool sample
- C. Prepare to insert an NG Tube
- D. Administer intramuscular morphine sulfate as ordered
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority intervention in this scenario is to start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm. The patient's low blood pressure (95/60) and elevated pulse rate (110 beats per minute) indicate a potential hemorrhage, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation. Starting a large-bore IV will allow for rapid administration of fluids to stabilize the patient's condition. Asking for a stool sample, preparing to insert an NG tube, or administering morphine sulfate should not take precedence over addressing the hemodynamic instability and potential hemorrhage observed in the patient. These actions may be considered later in the patient's care, but the primary focus should be on addressing the critical issue of fluid replacement and stabilization.
4. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:
- A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination
- B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination
- C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination
- D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination is the correct action. Bowel prep is crucial for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) as it helps in achieving better visualization of the bladder and ureters. Instructing the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination (Choice A) is not the appropriate preparation for an IVP. Restricting the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination (Choice B) is not necessary for this test. Informing the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary (Choice D) is not relevant to the preparation process for an IVP.
5. A nurse caring for several patients in the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?
- A. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage.
- B. A postoperative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule.
- C. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes.
- D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator is used to deliver an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. These patients are at high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias, which may result in syncope. Patients with atrial tachycardia and fatigue (Choice D) would not typically require an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator as their primary issue is related to atrial arrhythmias. Patients who have had a myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage (Choice A) or postoperative coronary bypass patients recovering on schedule (Choice B) are not necessarily at high risk for ventricular arrhythmias and would not be the primary candidates for an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator.
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