Nursing Elites

1. Which goal has the highest priority in the plan of care for a 26-year-old homeless patient admitted with viral hepatitis who has severe anorexia and fatigue?

• A. Increase activity level.
• B. Maintain adequate nutrition
• C. Establish a stable environment
• D. Identify sources of hepatitis exposure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The highest priority outcome is to maintain adequate nutrition because it is essential for hepatocyte regeneration. In viral hepatitis, the liver is affected, and proper nutrition supports the liver's function and regeneration. While increasing activity level and establishing a stable environment are important, they are not as urgent as ensuring the patient receives proper nutrition. Identifying sources of hepatitis exposure can help prevent future infections, but in the acute phase, the immediate focus should be on providing adequate nutrition to support the patient's recovery.

2. A client complained of nausea, a metallic taste in her mouth, and fine hand tremors 2 hours after her first dose of lithium carbonate (Lithane). What is the nurse's best explanation of these findings?

• A. These side effects are common and should subside in a few days.
• B. The client is probably having an allergic reaction and should discontinue the drug.
• C. Taking the lithium on an empty stomach should decrease these symptoms.
• D. Decreasing dietary intake of sodium and fluids should minimize the side effects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These side effects are common and should subside in a few days.' Nausea, metallic taste, and fine hand tremors are common side effects of lithium carbonate (Lithane) and typically diminish within a few days as the body adjusts to the medication. Option B is incorrect because these symptoms are not indicative of an allergic reaction. Option C is incorrect as taking lithium on an empty stomach does not directly address or decrease these specific side effects. Option D is also incorrect as reducing sodium and fluid intake is not the recommended approach to managing these particular side effects of lithium.

3. A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be reported to the physician immediately?

• A. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl
• B. Platelet count of 150,000
• C. INR of 2.5
• D. Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The critical lab result that should be reported to the physician immediately in this case is the potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. A potassium imbalance, especially in a patient with a history of dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, can be life-threatening and lead to cardiac distress. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can predispose the patient to dangerous arrhythmias, including worsening atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, platelet count of 150,000, and an INR of 2.5 are within acceptable ranges and not as immediately concerning as a low potassium level in this clinical context.

4. A nurse is caring for a 2-day-old infant who has a bilirubin level of 19 mg/dl. The physician has ordered phototherapy. Which of the following actions indicates correct preparation of the infant for this procedure?

• A. Undress the baby down to a diaper and hat
• B. Place the baby in his mother's arms before turning on the light
• C. Position the phototherapy light approximately 3 inches above the baby's skin
• D. Secure eye protection for the infant without occluding the nose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phototherapy is used to treat high levels of bilirubin among infants, typically evidenced as jaundice. The nurse must position the infant carefully during this procedure to maximize the benefits of the light therapy while protecting the baby. Placing protective eyewear over the baby's eyes without covering the nose is crucial to shield the eyes from the ultraviolet light. Undressing the baby down to a diaper and hat (Choice A) is a standard practice to maximize skin exposure to the phototherapy light. Placing the baby in his mother's arms before turning on the light (Choice B) is not necessary for the preparation of the infant for phototherapy. Positioning the phototherapy light approximately 3 inches above the baby's skin (Choice C) is incorrect as the distance should be as recommended by the healthcare provider based on the manufacturer's instructions.

5. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?

• A. "I have constant blurred vision."?
• B. "I can't see on my left side."?
• C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."?
• D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.

Similar Questions