Nursing Elites

1. During the beginning phase of a therapeutic relationship, why is a clear understanding of participants' roles important?

• A. Understanding what will be discussed
• B. Knowing that the nurse is trying to be helpful
• C. Knowing what to expect from the relationship
• D. Preparing for termination of the relationship

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the initial stages of a therapeutic relationship, having a clear understanding of participants' roles is crucial as it helps in defining the structure and boundaries of the relationship. This clarity assists in setting expectations and establishing a framework for interaction, allowing the client to focus on the therapeutic process rather than on uncertainties regarding their role or the nurse's role. Option A, understanding what will be discussed, is important but not directly related to defining roles. Option B, knowing that the nurse is trying to be helpful, is about the intent of the nurse rather than the roles of the participants. Option D, preparing for termination of the relationship, is premature in the beginning phase and not directly related to understanding roles.

2. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

3. A college athlete sustained a complete transection of the spinal cord while practicing on a trampoline. The health care provider explained that return of function to the lower extremities is not likely. Two weeks later, the client verbalizes the need to practice for an upcoming tournament. Which conclusion would the nurse make about the client's statement?

• A. Exhibiting denial
• B. Verbalizing a fantasy
• C. No longer able to adapt
• D. Motivated to recover mobility

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Exhibiting denial.' Denial is a common defense mechanism when facing a serious health issue. The individual rejects the existence of the problem due to the overwhelming anxiety and emotional distress it causes. In this case, the athlete's desire to practice for an upcoming tournament despite being informed about the unlikely return of lower extremity function indicates denial of the severity of their condition. Choice B, 'Verbalizing a fantasy,' is incorrect as a fantasy involves creating imagined events to fulfill unconscious wishes, which is not evident here. Choice C, 'No longer able to adapt,' is incorrect because the client is actually demonstrating a maladaptive coping mechanism by denying the reality of their situation. Choice D, 'Motivated to recover mobility,' is incorrect as the client's goal of practicing for a tournament does not align with the realistic expectation of recovering mobility after a complete spinal cord transection.

4. What is the nurse's priority action when a client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells experiences tingling in the fingers and headache?

• A. Call the health care provider (HCP).
• B. Stop the transfusion.
• C. Slow the infusion rate.
• D. Assess the intravenous (IV) site for infiltration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion experiences tingling in the fingers and headache, these symptoms may indicate an adverse reaction to the transfusion. The nurse's priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion and initiate a normal saline infusion at a keep vein open (KVO) rate. This helps maintain the client's vein patency while addressing the adverse reactions. After stopping the transfusion and initiating the saline infusion, the nurse should assess the client, including vital signs evaluation. Subsequently, the healthcare provider should be notified. Calling the healthcare provider is important, but it should be done after the immediate action of stopping the transfusion. Slowing the infusion rate is not appropriate during a suspected transfusion reaction as it can exacerbate the adverse effects. Assessing the IV site for infiltration is a routine nursing intervention and is not the priority when managing a potential adverse reaction to a blood transfusion.

5. The nurse plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.8 mL
• C. 1.25 mL
• D. 2.0 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Volume to administer = (Ordered Dose × Volume on hand) / Dose on hand). In this case, it would be (4 mg × 1 mL) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect because it miscalculates the dosage. Choice C (1.25 mL) and Choice D (2.0 mL) are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the ordered dose and available concentration. The correct answer, 0.8 mL, is derived from accurate dosage calculation and aligns with the formula for IV medication administration, ensuring the safe and effective delivery of the medication to the client.

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