NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The parents of a 2-year-old child who had an orchiopexy to correct cryptorchidism are provided with discharge instructions by the nurse. Which statement by the parents indicates the need for further instruction?
- A. I'll check his temperature.
- B. I'll give him medication so he'll be comfortable.
- C. I'll check his voiding to be sure there's no problem.
- D. I'll let him decide when to return to his play activities.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cryptorchidism is a condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotal sac. Orchiopexy, a surgical correction, may be required. After surgery, it is crucial to restrict vigorous activities for 2 weeks to promote healing and prevent injury. Allowing the child to decide when to return to play activities may lead to delayed healing and increased risk of injury, as 2-year-olds typically want to be active. Checking the child's temperature, administering analgesics as needed, and monitoring urine output are important postoperative care measures to ensure recovery and detect complications early. Therefore, the statement indicating the need for further instruction is the one related to letting the child decide when to resume play activities.
2. A child presents to the emergency department with colicky abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant. What disorder is suspected based on these symptoms?
- A. Peritonitis
- B. Appendicitis
- C. Intussusception
- D. Hirschsprung's disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The child's presentation of colicky abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant is classic for appendicitis. Appendicitis typically presents with localized pain that starts near the umbilicus and then shifts to the right lower quadrant. Peritonitis, on the other hand, is characterized by diffuse abdominal pain, tenderness, and guarding, usually resulting from organ perforation or intestinal obstruction. Intussusception is associated with acute, severe abdominal pain and currant jelly-like stools due to intestinal telescoping. Hirschsprung's disease, which lacks ganglion cells in the colon, manifests with symptoms like constipation, abdominal distension, and foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools.
3. Why is it important to genotype HCV before initiating drug therapy?
- A. Side effects of nucleotide analogs
- B. Measures for improving the appetite
- C. Ways to increase activity and exercise
- D. Administering alpha-interferon (Intron A)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Genotyping of HCV plays a crucial role in managing treatment as it helps determine the most effective therapy for the specific viral strain. It allows healthcare providers to personalize treatment regimens and predict response rates. The statement about acute HCV infection converting to chronic state is accurate, highlighting the need for appropriate management. Immune globulin and vaccines are not available for HCV, and Ribavirin is commonly used for chronic HCV infection. Improving appetite is essential in liver health as adequate nutritional intake supports hepatocyte regeneration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific importance of genotyping in HCV treatment or the significance of appetite improvement in liver function.
4. When assessing a patient who has just arrived after an automobile accident, the emergency department nurse notes tachycardia and absent breath sounds over the right lung. For which intervention will the nurse prepare the patient?
- A. Emergency pericardiocentesis
- B. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape
- C. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator
- D. Insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient's history and absent breath sounds suggest a right-sided pneumothorax or hemothorax, which will require treatment with a chest tube and drainage. Emergency pericardiocentesis is not indicated as the patient's symptoms are not suggestive of cardiac tamponade. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape would not address the underlying issue of a potential pneumothorax or hemothorax. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator is not appropriate in this scenario as the patient is not exhibiting signs of asthma or bronchoconstriction. Therefore, the correct intervention for this patient is the insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system to address the potential pneumothorax or hemothorax.
5. While caring for a patient with respiratory disease, the nurse observes that the patient's SpO2 drops from 93% to 88% while the patient is ambulating in the hallway. What is the priority action of the nurse?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider
- B. Document the response to exercise
- C. Administer the PRN supplemental O2
- D. Encourage the patient to pace activity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The drop in SpO2 to 88% indicates that the patient is hypoxemic and needs supplemental oxygen when exercising. Administering PRN supplemental oxygen is the priority action to correct the hypoxemia and ensure adequate oxygenation during activity. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after stabilizing the patient's oxygen levels. Documenting the response to exercise is important but secondary to addressing the immediate hypoxemia. Encouraging the patient to pace activity is not sufficient to address the acute drop in SpO2 and provide the necessary oxygen support.
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