Nursing Elites

1. A client is having difficulties reading an educational pamphlet. He cannot find his glasses. In order to read the words, he must hold the pamphlet at arm's length, which allows him to read the information. Which vision deficit does this client most likely suffer from?

• A. Cataracts
• B. Glaucoma
• C. Astigmatism
• D. Presbyopia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Presbyopia is a condition that occurs when the lens of the eye loses accommodation and is unable to focus light on objects nearby. As a result, clients are unable to see or read items up close but may have success when holding the same item at arm's length. Many clients with presbyopia must wear bifocals, but long-distance vision remains unaffected. Cataracts involve clouding of the eye's lens, leading to blurry vision. Glaucoma is associated with increased intraocular pressure that damages the optic nerve, causing vision loss. Astigmatism is a refractive error where the cornea or lens has an irregular shape, leading to distorted or blurred vision.

2. How does the procedure for taking a pulse rate on an infant differ from an adult?

• A. Pulse rates are taken on infants using a different method.
• B. The apical pulse method is used on infants.
• C. Pulse rates on infants are taken with a sphygmomanometer.
• D. Pulse rates on infants are taken apically in the third intercostal space.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The apical pulse method is used on infants. This method involves placing a stethoscope in the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, and counting the beats for a full minute. It is a preferred method for infants due to their small size and the difficulty in palpating peripheral pulses accurately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as pulse rates are indeed taken on infants, albeit using a different method. Choice C is incorrect as a sphygmomanometer is typically used for measuring blood pressure, not pulse rates. Choice D is incorrect as pulse rates on infants are usually taken apically in the fifth intercostal space, not the third.

3. During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first?

• A. 40-year-old with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain
• B. 58-year-old who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexia
• C. 55-year-old with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102°F (38.8°C)
• D. 36-year-old recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing patient assessments, the nurse should address the patient with cirrhosis and ascites who has an elevated oral temperature of 102°F (38.8°C) first. This presentation suggests a potential infection, which is critical to address promptly in a patient with liver disease. An infection in a patient with cirrhosis can quickly progress to severe complications. The other options, such as chronic pancreatitis with abdominal pain, compensated cirrhosis with anorexia, and post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy with shoulder pain, do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation requiring urgent assessment compared to a possible infection in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites.

4. When preparing a patient on complete bed rest to eat, at what degree angle or more should you put the head of the bed up?

• A. 10
• B. 15
• C. 20
• D. 30

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 30. When a patient is on complete bed rest, it is essential to elevate the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle or more before meals. This position helps prevent choking and aspiration of food during eating by promoting proper swallowing and digestion. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal elevation needed to support safe and effective feeding for a patient on complete bed rest.

5. A client's intake and output are being calculated by a nurse. During the last shift, the client consumed ½ cup of gelatin, a skinless chicken breast, 1 cup of green beans, and 300 cc of water. The client also urinated 250 cc and had 2 bowel movements. What is this client's intake and output for this shift?

• A. 420 cc intake, 250 cc output
• B. 300 cc intake, 250 cc output
• C. 550 cc intake, 550 cc output
• D. 300 cc intake, 550 cc output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 420 cc intake and 250 cc output for this shift. To calculate the intake, ½ cup of gelatin (approximately 120 cc) and 300 cc of water should be added together, resulting in 420 cc. Food intake like the chicken breast and green beans is not converted to cc's but may be documented for hospital protocol. Output includes urine (250 cc in this case) and other forms like vomit, diarrhea, or gastric suction. Bowel movements are not converted to cc's, but the nurse may need to document the number of stools passed. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the intake and output calculations based on the information provided.

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