NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The infant has a diagnosis of bladder exstrophy. To protect the exposed bladder tissue, what intervention should the nurse plan?
- A. Cover the bladder with petroleum jelly gauze.
- B. Cover the bladder with a non-adhering plastic wrap.
- C. Apply sterile distilled water dressings over the bladder mucosa.
- D. Keep the bladder tissue dry by covering it with dry sterile gauze.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a condition where the bladder is exposed and external to the body. To protect the exposed bladder tissue from drying out while allowing urine drainage, it is best to cover the bladder with a non-adhering plastic wrap. Using petroleum jelly gauze should be avoided as it can dry out, adhere to the mucosa, and damage delicate tissue upon removal. Applying sterile distilled water dressings can also dry out and cause damage when removed. Keeping the bladder tissue dry with sterile gauze is not ideal as maintaining a moist environment is important for tissue protection in this case.
2. A 38-year-old patient with cirrhosis has ascites and 4+ edema of the feet and legs. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?
- A. Restrict daily dietary protein intake.
- B. Reposition the patient every 4 hours.
- C. Place the patient on a pressure-relieving mattress.
- D. Perform passive range of motion daily.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placing the patient on a pressure-relieving mattress is crucial to decrease the risk of skin breakdown, especially with significant edema and ascites. Adequate dietary protein intake is essential in patients with ascites to improve oncotic pressure and prevent malnutrition. Repositioning the patient every 4 hours alone may not be sufficient to prevent skin breakdown, especially in areas prone to pressure ulcers. Performing passive range of motion exercises is important for maintaining joint mobility but does not directly address the risk of skin breakdown associated with prolonged pressure on vulnerable areas.
3. A patient scheduled for cataract surgery asks the nurse why they developed cataracts and how to prevent it in the future. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Age is the biggest factor contributing to cataracts.
- B. Unprotected exposure to UV lights can cause cataracts.
- C. Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.
- D. Unfortunately, there is really nothing you can do to prevent cataracts, but they are amongst the most easily treated eye conditions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.' This response is the best choice as it covers the most common contributing factors for cataracts and includes preventable risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because while age is a significant factor in cataract development, it is not the only one. Choice B is incorrect as UV light exposure is a risk factor for cataracts but not the most comprehensive response. Choice D is incorrect as there are preventive measures individuals can take to reduce their risk of developing cataracts, such as protecting their eyes from UV light and managing other risk factors.
4. The nurse assesses a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been admitted with increasing dyspnea over the last 3 days. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Respirations are 36 breaths/minute.
- B. Anterior-posterior chest ratio is 1:1.
- C. Lung expansion is decreased bilaterally.
- D. Hyperresonance to percussion is present.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Respirations are 36 breaths/minute.' An increased respiratory rate is a crucial sign of respiratory distress in patients with COPD, necessitating immediate interventions like oxygen therapy or medications. The other options are common chronic changes seen in COPD patients. Option B, the 'Anterior-posterior chest ratio is 1:1,' is related to the barrel chest commonly seen in COPD due to hyperinflation. Option C, 'Lung expansion is decreased bilaterally,' is expected in COPD due to air trapping. Option D, 'Hyperresonance to percussion is present,' is typical in COPD patients with increased lung volume and air trapping.
5. Which of the following can cause coup-contrecoup injuries?
- A. Rotational forces
- B. Deformation forces
- C. Deceleration forces
- D. Acceleration forces
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Deceleration forces occur when the head is moving and abruptly comes to a stop, such as in a car crash. This sudden deceleration can cause the brain to hit against the skull, resulting in coup-contrecoup injuries. In a coup-contrecoup injury, the brain is damaged on opposite sides due to the initial impact and the rebound effect inside the skull. Rotational forces usually result in diffuse axonal injuries rather than coup-contrecoup injuries. Deformation forces can cause focal brain injuries but not coup-contrecoup injuries. Acceleration forces typically lead to diffuse brain injuries, not coup-contrecoup injuries. Therefore, the correct answer is deceleration forces.
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