NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. The nurse plans care for a hospitalized patient who uses culturally based treatments. Which action by the nurse is best?
- A. Encourage the use of diagnostic procedures.
- B. Coordinate the use of folk treatments with ordered medical therapies.
- C. Ask the patient to discontinue the cultural treatments during hospitalization.
- D. Teach the patient that folk remedies will interfere with orders by the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best action for the nurse is to coordinate the use of folk treatments with ordered medical therapies. Many culturally based therapies can complement Western treatments and medications. It is essential for the nurse to integrate both traditional folk treatments and Western therapies to provide holistic care. Some culturally based treatments can effectively complement Western medicine in treating diseases. Encouraging the patient to continue some culturally based treatments during hospitalization can enhance their overall well-being. Asking the patient to discontinue cultural treatments or teaching that folk remedies interfere with Western therapies may not align with the patient's beliefs and could hinder their care.
2. While conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic, the nurse notes that his affect is flat, he responds to questions with short answers, and he reports problems with sleeping. He reports that his life partner recently died from pneumonia. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to see the clinic's grief counselor.
- B. Determine if the client has a family history of suicide attempts.
- C. Inquire about whether the life partner was suffering from AIDS.
- D. Consult with the health care provider about the client's need for antidepressant medications.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client is exhibiting normal grieving behaviors, so referral to a grief counselor is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Option B is relevant but is not a high-priority intervention compared to addressing the immediate grief support needs of the client. Option C is irrelevant at this time but might be important when determining the client's risk for contracting the illness. While antidepressant medication might be necessary based on further assessment, grief counseling is a more appropriate initial action as grief is a typical response to the loss of a loved one.
3. Which response would the nurse make when a client moans softly, 'Oh no, I'm next. They couldn't protect him, and they can't protect me,' after learning a recently discharged client committed suicide?
- A. ''The other person was a lot sicker than you are.''
- B. 'You seem to be afraid that you'll hurt yourself.''
- C. 'That was different. He was at home, but you're here.''
- D. 'There's no need to worry. You have a better support system.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse would make the statement, 'You seem to be afraid that you'll hurt yourself.' This response acknowledges the client's emotional distress and opens up the opportunity for the client to discuss their feelings, showing empathy and understanding. Choice A, 'The other person was a lot sicker than you are,' dismisses the client's emotions and fails to address the underlying fear of self-harm. Choice C, 'That was different. He was at home, but you're here,' invalidates the client's concerns and does not encourage further discussion. Choice D, 'There's no need to worry. You have a better support system,' offers false reassurance and does not address the client's expressed fear, missing an opportunity for therapeutic communication.
4. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?
- A. Maintain standard precautions.
- B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.
5. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?
- A. 18-24 years
- B. 25-34 years
- C. 35-44 years
- D. 45-64 years
Correct answer: D
Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.
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