Nursing Elites

1. Signs and symptoms of stroke may include all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Sudden weakness or numbness of the face, arm, or leg.
• B. Sudden confusion.
• C. Sudden headache with no known cause.
• D. Hypotension.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypotension is not a typical sign or symptom of an acute stroke. The correct signs and symptoms of a stroke include sudden weakness or numbness of the face, arm, or leg, sudden confusion, and a sudden headache with no known cause. Hypotension, which refers to low blood pressure, is not a common indicator of a stroke. It is important to differentiate between hypotension and hypertension in the context of stroke symptoms, as hypertension (high blood pressure) is actually a risk factor for strokes. Sudden weakness, numbness, confusion, and headache are signs associated with a stroke due to a disruption in blood flow to the brain. Hypotension, on the other hand, primarily indicates low blood pressure and is not directly linked to the typical presentation of a stroke.

2. The nurse is caring for a newborn infant after surgical intervention for imperforate anus. The nurse should place the infant in which position in the postoperative period?

• A. Supine with no head elevation
• B. Side-lying with the legs flexed
• C. Side-lying with the legs extended
• D. Supine with the head elevated 30 degrees

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After surgical intervention for imperforate anus, the infant should be placed in a side-lying position with the legs flexed. This position helps reduce edema and pressure on the surgical site, preventing strain and promoting comfort. Placing the infant supine with no head elevation (Choice A) doesn't offer adequate support and may increase pressure on the area. Side-lying with the legs extended (Choice C) doesn't help reduce edema and pressure effectively. Placing the infant supine with the head elevated 30 degrees (Choice D) isn't recommended as it may not provide adequate support and comfort needed for recovery.

3. A 34-year-old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?

• A. IgA
• B. IgD
• C. IgE
• D. IgG

Correct answer: D

Rationale: IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the fetus. About 70-80% of the immunoglobulins in the blood are IgG. Specific IgG antibodies are generated after an initial exposure to an antigen, offering long-term protection against microorganisms. IgG antibodies are critical for protecting the fetus as they can be rapidly reproduced upon re-exposure to the same antigen. IgA is primarily found in mucosal areas, IgD is involved in antigen recognition, and IgE is associated with allergic reactions, but they do not provide the same level of protection to the fetus as IgG.

4. A patient with bacterial pneumonia has rhonchi and thick sputum. What is the nurse's most appropriate action to promote airway clearance?

• A. Assist the patient to splint the chest when coughing.
• B. Teach the patient about the need for fluid intake.
• C. Encourage the patient to wear the nasal oxygen cannula.
• D. Instruct the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the patient to splint the chest when coughing is the most appropriate action to promote airway clearance in a patient with bacterial pneumonia, rhonchi, and thick sputum. Splinting the chest helps reduce pain during coughing and increases the effectiveness of clearing secretions. Teaching the patient about the need for fluid intake is important as it helps liquefy secretions, aiding in easier clearance. Encouraging the patient to wear a nasal oxygen cannula may improve gas exchange but does not directly promote airway clearance. Instructing the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique is beneficial for improving gas exchange in patients with COPD but does not directly aid in airway clearance in a patient with bacterial pneumonia and thick sputum.

5. The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?

• A. 8
• B. 10
• C. 14
• D. 18

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.

Similar Questions