the mother of an 18 month old child tells the clinic nurse that the child has been having some mild diarrhea and describes the childs stools as mushy
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. What is the most appropriate suggestion regarding the diet for an 18-month-old child experiencing mild diarrhea and 'mushy' stools, but tolerating fluids and solid foods?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a child with mild diarrhea who is tolerating fluids and solid foods, the most appropriate diet suggestion would be to continue feeding a normal diet to prevent dehydration, reduce stool frequency and volume, and hasten recovery. Foods that are well tolerated during diarrhea include bland but nutritional options like complex carbohydrates (rice, wheat, potatoes, cereals), yogurt with live cultures, cooked vegetables, and lean meats. Mashed potatoes with baked chicken provide a balance of nutrients and are easy on the digestive system. Options A and C contain foods that may worsen diarrhea; applesauce and gelatin can be high in sugars which can exacerbate diarrhea, and cabbage may be hard to digest for some individuals. Option D of offering fluids only can affect the child's nutritional status by not providing enough essential nutrients during the recovery period.

2. A 7-year-old child is seen in a clinic, and the pediatrician documents a diagnosis of nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis. What information should the nurse provide to the parents?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is common in children and is characterized by a child who has never been dry at night for extended periods. Most children eventually outgrow bedwetting without therapeutic intervention. This condition is due to the child being unable to sense a full bladder and not awakening to void, often related to delayed maturation of the central nervous system. It is important for parents to understand that nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is not caused by a psychiatric problem, does not typically require surgical intervention, and usually resolves on its own over time.

3. A healthcare provider calls a physician with the concern that a patient has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following symptoms has the healthcare provider most likely observed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath.' Typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include chest pain, shortness of breath, and severe anxiety. The physician should be notified immediately. Clinical signs and symptoms for pulmonary embolism are nonspecific; therefore, patients suspected of having pulmonary embolism"?because of unexplained dyspnea, tachypnea, or chest pain or the presence of risk factors for pulmonary embolism"?must undergo diagnostic tests until the diagnosis is ascertained or eliminated or an alternative diagnosis is confirmed. Choices A, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with a pulmonary embolism, making them incorrect.

4. A 1-year-old child is diagnosed with intussusception, and the mother of the child asks the student nurse to describe the disorder. Which statement by the student nurse indicates correct understanding of this disorder?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition in which a proximal segment of the bowel telescopes or prolapses into a distal segment of the bowel. This leads to bowel obstruction and potential ischemia. It is not an acute bowel obstruction, as the obstruction is caused by the telescoping of bowel segments rather than a blockage in the bowel lumen. Intussusception is not primarily an inflammatory process; instead, it is a mechanical issue involving bowel invagination. Choice A is incorrect as it does not accurately describe the pathophysiology of intussusception. Choice C is incorrect because it presents the opposite scenario of what happens in intussusception.

5. Which response by the nurse best explains the purpose of ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient admitted with bleeding esophageal varices?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is: 'The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.' Esophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins. The therapeutic action of H2-receptor blockers in patients with esophageal varices is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices caused by reflux of acidic gastric contents. While ranitidine can decrease the risk of peptic ulcers, reduce nausea, and help prevent aspiration pneumonia, the primary purpose of H2-receptor blockade in this patient is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices, not the other listed effects.

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