a nurse is monitoring a client for decreased tissue perfusion and increased risk of skin breakdown which measure best improves tissue perfusion in thi
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions

1. A client is being monitored for decreased tissue perfusion and increased risk of skin breakdown. Which measure best improves tissue perfusion in this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client at risk of impaired skin integrity due to decreased tissue perfusion, improving mobility is crucial to enhance tissue perfusion and prevent skin breakdown. Range of motion exercises are beneficial to increase circulation and prevent complications. Massaging reddened areas may further damage fragile skin. Administering antithrombotics may be necessary for specific conditions but does not directly address tissue perfusion. Feeding a high-carbohydrate diet does not directly improve tissue perfusion in this context.

2. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.

3. After a lengthy explanation of a medical procedure, the patient asks many questions. The physician answers all of the questions to the best of their ability. The patient then gives consent for treatment. The costly equipment and supplies are put into place, and the patient is prepared. Two minutes before the procedure is to start, the patient begins panicking and changes their mind. Which of the following situations would be the best way to avoid litigation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action to avoid litigation is to respect the patient's right to refuse treatment, especially when changing their mind before the procedure starts. By not proceeding with the treatment, documenting the patient's refusal, and having the patient sign a refusal to consent form, you are following proper ethical and legal procedures. If the patient refuses to sign the form, having a witness available to sign further strengthens the documentation of the patient's decision. This approach ensures that the patient's autonomy and right to make informed decisions about their healthcare are respected. Choices A, B, and C do not prioritize the patient's right to refuse treatment and could potentially lead to legal issues if treatment is carried out against the patient's wishes.

4. Which example best describes a nurse who exhibits moral courage?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Moral courage involves taking action to do what is right, even when there might be negative consequences. The nurse who contacted a physician for further orders acted as a client advocate to seek help, even though she may have faced consequences such as lost time, decreased productivity, or criticism from the physician. Choices A, B, and D do not directly involve advocating for a client's needs or challenging a situation that goes against ethical standards. Feeling angry, seeking help for personal issues, or being frustrated with work processes do not necessarily demonstrate moral courage in the context of nursing practice.

5. A client with adrenal insufficiency has a potassium level of 7.2 mEq/L. Which of the following signs or symptoms might the client exhibit with this result?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability. Muscle spasms (Choice B) are more commonly associated with hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice C) is not a typical sign of hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave on the ECG (Choice D) is associated with hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.

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