NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The clinic nurse reviews the record of an infant and notes that the primary health care provider (PHCP) has documented a diagnosis of suspected Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse reviews the assessment findings documented in the record, knowing that which sign most likely led the mother to seek health care for the infant?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Projectile vomiting
- C. Regurgitation of feedings
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease, also known as congenital aganglionosis or aganglionic megacolon, is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the rectum and other parts of the affected intestine. Clinical manifestations of Hirschsprung's disease include chronic constipation with pellet-like or ribbon-like foul-smelling stools, delayed or absent passage of meconium in the neonatal period, bowel obstruction (especially in the neonatal period), abdominal pain and distention, and failure to thrive. In the case of an infant with suspected Hirschsprung's disease, regurgitation of feedings is a sign that may have led the mother to seek healthcare. This symptom can be associated with the bowel dysfunction and obstruction seen in Hirschsprung's disease. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with Hirschsprung's disease. Diarrhea is not a common symptom, projectile vomiting is not a typical presentation, and constipation, while a symptom of the disease, is not the sign that would most likely prompt a visit to seek healthcare in an infant suspected of having Hirschsprung's disease.
2. The nurse assesses a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been admitted with increasing dyspnea over the last 3 days. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Respirations are 36 breaths/minute.
- B. Anterior-posterior chest ratio is 1:1.
- C. Lung expansion is decreased bilaterally.
- D. Hyperresonance to percussion is present.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Respirations are 36 breaths/minute.' An increased respiratory rate is a crucial sign of respiratory distress in patients with COPD, necessitating immediate interventions like oxygen therapy or medications. The other options are common chronic changes seen in COPD patients. Option B, the 'Anterior-posterior chest ratio is 1:1,' is related to the barrel chest commonly seen in COPD due to hyperinflation. Option C, 'Lung expansion is decreased bilaterally,' is expected in COPD due to air trapping. Option D, 'Hyperresonance to percussion is present,' is typical in COPD patients with increased lung volume and air trapping.
3. The parents of an infant who underwent surgical repair of bladder exstrophy ask if the infant will be able to control their bladder as they get older. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Your child will need catheterization until bladder control is gained.
- B. Your child will be able to control their bladder like other children.
- C. You should potty train your child at the same time you normally would.
- D. Your child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, so urine will drain freely.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital defect where the infant is born with the bladder located on the outside of the body. Surgical repair typically occurs within the first 1 to 2 days of life. In the following 3 to 5 years post-surgery, urine will drain freely from the urethra due to the absence of a sphincter mechanism. This period allows the bladder to develop capacity as the child grows. Subsequent surgical interventions will be required to establish a functioning sphincter mechanism. Therefore, the correct response is that the child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, leading to urine draining freely. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the physiological process and management of bladder exstrophy.
4. After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Teach about drug-resistant TB treatment
- B. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed
- C. Schedule the patient for directly observed therapy three times weekly
- D. Discuss with the healthcare provider the need for the patient to use an injectable antibiotic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. The other options are interventions based on assumptions until an assessment has been completed. Teaching about drug-resistant TB treatment (Choice A) is premature without knowing the current medication compliance status. Scheduling directly observed therapy (Choice C) assumes non-compliance without confirming it first. Discussing the need for an injectable antibiotic (Choice D) is premature and not necessarily indicated without assessing the current medication adherence.
5. A patient asks a nurse administering blood how long red blood cells live in the body. What is the correct response?
- A. The life span of RBC is 45 days
- B. The life span of RBC is 60 days
- C. The life span of RBC is 90 days
- D. The life span of RBC is 120 days
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that red blood cells have a lifespan of 120 days in the body. This allows for efficient oxygen transport throughout the circulatory system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the lifespan of red blood cells is actually 120 days. Understanding the lifespan of red blood cells is crucial in assessing various conditions related to blood cell production and turnover.
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