Nursing Elites

1. Specific gravity in urinalysis:

• A. compares the concentration of urine to that of distilled water
• B. is useless when the patient is dehydrated
• C. can only be measured using a refractometer
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Specific gravity in urinalysis measures the concentration of solutes in urine compared to that of distilled water. This comparison helps in assessing the kidney's ability to concentrate urine properly. It is a valuable test even in dehydrated patients as it provides insights into renal function. Specific gravity can be measured using various methods, including a refractometer or reagent strips. Normal specific gravity readings of human urine typically range from 1.005 to 1.030. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the purpose of specific gravity in urinalysis. Choices B and C are incorrect as specific gravity remains relevant in dehydrated patients and can be measured using different techniques, not solely a refractometer.

2. A parent calls the pediatric clinic and is frantic about the bottle of cleaning fluid her child drank for 20 minutes. Which of the following is the most important instruction the nurse can give the parent?

• A. This too shall pass.
• B. Take the child immediately to the ER
• C. Contact the Poison Control Center quickly
• D. Give the child syrup of ipecac

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In situations where a child has ingested a potentially harmful substance, contacting the Poison Control Center quickly is crucial. The Poison Control Center can provide specific guidance tailored to the child's situation, which can include whether immediate medical attention is necessary or if any actions need to be taken at home. Option A, 'This too shall pass,' is not appropriate as it dismisses the seriousness of the situation. Option B, 'Take the child immediately to the ER,' may not always be the best course of action without guidance from experts. Option D, 'Give the child syrup of ipecac,' is outdated advice and not recommended as a first response to poisoning incidents.

3. When educating a client about their new prescription for warfarin, what should the nurse advise?

• A. To have his white blood cell count tested once a month
• B. To avoid any activities that could lead to injury
• C. To avoid eating leafy green vegetables
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid any activities that could lead to injury when taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that decreases blood clotting, increasing the risk of bleeding. Engaging in activities that may result in injury can lead to uncontrolled bleeding, which can be serious. While monitoring white blood cell count is not specifically related to warfarin therapy, avoiding leafy green vegetables is important due to their vitamin K content, which can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness. Therefore, the client should be educated to avoid activities that could cause injury to prevent potential bleeding complications.

4. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

5. Penny Thornton has had a stroke, or CVA, and is having difficulty eating on her own. Soon, she will be getting some assistive devices for eating meals. Which healthcare worker will be providing Penny with these assistive devices?

• A. A physical therapist
• B. A speech therapist
• C. A social worker
• D. An occupational therapist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An occupational therapist is the healthcare professional responsible for assessing the needs of individuals, like Penny, regarding assistive devices that aid them in their daily activities. In this case, assistive devices for eating, such as weighted plates and specialized utensils, are crucial for helping Penny regain independence in feeding herself. Physical therapists focus more on mobility and movement, speech therapists on communication and swallowing disorders, and social workers on providing emotional and social support. Therefore, the correct choice is the occupational therapist as they specialize in activities of daily living and promoting independence.

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