NCLEX NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank
1. Rales and rhonchi are frequently noted during an examination of lung sounds. What is the difference between the two?
- A. Rales are louder.
- B. Rhonchi are noted only in infants.
- C. Rales occur on inspiration, rhonchi on expiration.
- D. Rales are noted only in infants.
Correct answer: Rales occur on inspiration, rhonchi on expiration.
Rationale: The correct answer is that rales occur on inspiration, while rhonchi occur on expiration. Rales are typically heard during inhalation when there is fluid in the alveoli or air passages. Rhonchi, on the other hand, are caused by air passing through obstructed airways during exhalation due to secretions in the respiratory tract. Choice A is incorrect because the loudness of the sounds is not the primary distinguishing factor between rales and rhonchi. Choice B is incorrect as rhonchi can be heard in individuals beyond infancy. Choice D is incorrect as rales can be present in patients of various age groups, not just infants.
2. When obtaining a health history and physical assessment for a 36-year-old female patient with possible multiple sclerosis (MS), the nurse should
- A. assess for the presence of chest pain.
- B. inquire about urinary tract problems.
- C. inspect the skin for rashes or discoloration.
- D. ask the patient about any increase in libido.
Correct answer: inquire about urinary tract problems.
Rationale: When assessing a patient for possible multiple sclerosis (MS), it is important to inquire about urinary tract problems as they are common symptoms of the condition, such as incontinence or retention. Chest pain is not typically associated with MS, so assessing for its presence is not a priority. Inspecting the skin for rashes or discoloration is not a typical manifestation of MS. Additionally, a decrease in libido, rather than an increase, is more commonly seen in patients with MS. Therefore, the most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to inquire about urinary tract problems.
3. A patient asks the nurse why they must have a heparin injection. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Heparin will dissolve clots that you have.
- B. Heparin will reduce the platelets that make your blood clot.
- C. Heparin will work better than warfarin.
- D. Heparin will prevent new clots from developing.
Correct answer: Heparin will prevent new clots from developing.
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Heparin will prevent new clots from developing.' Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent the formation of new blood clots. It does not dissolve existing clots (choice A), reduce platelets (choice B), or necessarily work 'better' than warfarin (choice C) but rather functions differently. The primary action of heparin is to prevent the development of new clots, especially in conditions where clot formation is a concern.
4. The nurse analyzes the results of a patient's arterial blood gases (ABGs). Which finding would require immediate action?
- A. The bicarbonate level (HCO3) is 31 mEq/L
- B. The arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 92%
- C. The partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2) is 31 mm Hg
- D. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mm Hg
Correct answer: The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mm Hg
Rationale: While all the values are abnormal, the low PaO2 level of 59 mm Hg indicates that the patient is at a critical point on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. At this level, a small decrease in PaO2 can lead to a significant drop in oxygen saturation and compromise tissue oxygenation. Therefore, immediate intervention is necessary to improve the patient's oxygenation status. Choice A (HCO3 of 31 mEq/L) may indicate metabolic alkalosis or compensation for respiratory acidosis; however, it does not require immediate action in this scenario. Choice B (SaO2 of 92%) is slightly low but not critically low to require immediate action. Choice C (PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg) is within the normal range and does not indicate immediate danger to the patient.
5. Which response would best assist the chemically impaired client in dealing with issues of guilt?
- A. Addiction usually causes people to feel guilty. Don’t worry, it is a typical response due to your drinking behavior.
- B. What have you done that you feel most guilty about and what steps can you begin to take to help you lessen this guilt?
- C. Don’t focus on your guilty feelings. These feelings will only lead you to drinking and taking drugs.
- D. You’ve caused a great deal of pain to your family and close friends, so it will take time to undo all the things you’ve done.
Correct answer: What have you done that you feel most guilty about and what steps can you begin to take to help you lessen this guilt?
Rationale: The correct response is, 'What have you done that you feel most guilty about and what steps can you begin to take to help you lessen this guilt?' This response encourages the client to reflect on their actions, identify sources of guilt, and develop a plan to address and reduce these feelings constructively. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's guilt as typical, potentially invalidating their emotions. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests avoiding guilty feelings by turning to substance use, which is counterproductive. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the negative consequences of the client's actions without offering a constructive way to address and alleviate guilt.
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