NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which of the following is a local sign of infection?
- A. Swelling
- B. Rapid pulse
- C. Fever
- D. High white blood count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A local sign of infection refers to symptoms that are specific to the area of infection. Swelling, heat, pain, and redness near the infected site are examples of local signs. In the context of infection, swelling occurs due to an accumulation of fluid and immune cells at the site of infection. Rapid pulse, fever, and high white blood count are more systemic responses to infection and not specific local signs. Rapid pulse can indicate systemic distress or sepsis, fever is a systemic response to infection, and high white blood count is a laboratory finding that suggests an immune response but is not a direct sign of infection at a specific site.
2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who had back surgery. All of the following indicate that the client is ready for discharge EXCEPT:
- A. The client still has sutures at the incision site
- B. The client is able to take a shower
- C. The client must still use an ice pack at the wound site
- D. The client has a temperature of 100.8�F
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When determining if a client is ready for discharge after back surgery, it is essential to ensure that there are no signs of complications or emerging issues. A postoperative temperature of 100.8�F may indicate a developing infection, and the client should not be discharged until this is further evaluated by the physician. Choices A, B, and C are indicators that the client is progressing well and ready for discharge, as having sutures, being able to shower, and using an ice pack are typically expected postoperative activities without indicating a need for further hospitalization.
3. The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?
- A. Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.
- B. The infant will likely require surgical intervention.
- C. The infant likely has only one testis.
- D. Normally, the testes are descended by birth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. Option B is incorrect as not all cases of undescended testes require surgical intervention. Option C is incorrect because feeling only one testis does not necessarily mean the infant only has one testis. Option D is inaccurate as the testes do not normally descend by birth, but rather by one year of age. If the testes do not descend by one year, a full assessment will be needed to determine the appropriate treatment.
4. You are caring for a patient with newly diagnosed multiple sclerosis. Discharge instructions will likely include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. PT referral for development of a planned exercise program
- B. Avoidance of prolonged sun exposure
- C. Hot baths to promote muscle relaxation
- D. Instructions to evaluate the home environment to ensure safety
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Discharge instructions for a patient with newly diagnosed multiple sclerosis should focus on promoting safety and minimizing exacerbations. Hot baths should be avoided as excessive heat can trigger acute symptoms. Therefore, instructions may include PT referral for an exercise program to maintain mobility, avoidance of prolonged sun exposure to prevent symptom exacerbation, and guidance to evaluate the home environment for safety as symptoms progress. Hot baths are not recommended due to the risk of exacerbating symptoms, making it the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate for a patient with multiple sclerosis, as they address mobility, symptom management, and safety concerns, respectively.
5. Mrs. G is seen for follow-up after testing for chronically high blood glucose levels. Her physician diagnoses her with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following information is part of this client's education about this condition?
- A. Type 1 diabetes occurs due to increased carbohydrate intake and lack of exercise
- B. Type 1 diabetes is managed through diet and exercise
- C. Type 1 diabetes is caused by destruction of beta cells in the pancreas
- D. Type 1 diabetes leads to the body's cells rejecting insulin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. Insulin is essential for regulating blood glucose levels and enabling cells to use glucose for energy. Understanding that type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of beta cells helps patients comprehend the need for insulin replacement therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as type 1 diabetes is not primarily caused by diet or exercise habits. Choice D is incorrect because type 1 diabetes is not about the body's cells rejecting insulin but rather the lack of insulin production due to beta cell destruction.
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