Nursing Elites

1. One of the complications of complete bed rest and immobility is which of the following?

• A. Plantar flexion
• B. Dorsiflexion
• C. Extension contractures
• D. Adduction contractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Plantar flexion, or foot drop, is a common complication of complete bed rest and immobility. This condition occurs due to the weakening of muscles that lift the foot, leading to the foot dragging or being unable to clear the ground during walking. Dorsiflexion refers to moving the foot upwards, which is not a typical complication of immobility. Extension contractures involve the inability to fully extend a joint, while adduction contractures refer to the inability to move a limb away from the body. These types of contractures can also occur with immobility, but they are not specifically associated with foot drop.

2. A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Recognize this as a drug interaction
• B. Give the client Cogentin
• C. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy
• D. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.

3. According to HIPAA, which of the following is considered an individual right for privacy of a client's protected health information?

• A. The right to receive a copy of the organization's privacy practices
• B. The right to receive medical bills for care received
• C. The right to change personal health information
• D. An understanding that protected health information will only be used in regards to client treatments

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to HIPAA, individuals receiving care at healthcare facilities have rights surrounding their protected health information. One of these rights is to receive a copy of the organization's privacy practices, which outlines how their health information will be used and protected. This ensures transparency and allows individuals to understand how their information is handled. The other choices are incorrect because while individuals have the right to access their health information, receive explanations of how it is used, and ensure its confidentiality, receiving medical bills or changing personal health information are not specifically outlined as rights related to the privacy of protected health information.

4. Who among the following individuals wrote a medical code of ethics?

• A. Hammurabi
• B. Thomas Percival
• C. Hippocrates
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the above individuals contributed to the development of medical ethics. Hammurabi created the earliest known code around 2500 BC. Hippocrates, known for the principle 'Do no harm,' emphasized ethical practices in medicine. Thomas Percival, a physician interested in sociological medicine, authored a Code of Medical Ethics in 1803, which influenced modern medical ethics. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them individually wrote a medical code of ethics, making 'All of the above' the most inclusive and accurate answer.

5. A nursing unit is implementing a new electronic charting program for the nursing staff to use. Which of the following best describes a disadvantage of using electronic charting?

• A. The information is more likely to be lost or used inappropriately.
• B. Any provider in the unit can have access to the client's medical records.
• C. The system diminishes communication between nurses and providers.
• D. The program may be confusing and difficult to implement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant disadvantage of implementing a new electronic charting program is the potential for complexity and difficulty in implementation. Introducing a new system requires time and education for staff to adapt and use it appropriately. Users may experience confusion as they learn to navigate the new charting techniques, which can impact workflow efficiency and accuracy. Option A is incorrect because electronic charting systems are designed to enhance data security and integrity, reducing the risk of information being lost or misused. Option B is incorrect as access control mechanisms can restrict who can view specific patient records. Option C is incorrect as electronic charting systems often facilitate communication between healthcare providers by providing real-time access to patient information.

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