Nursing Elites

1. One of the complications of complete bed rest and immobility is which of the following?

• A. Plantar flexion
• B. Dorsiflexion
• C. Extension contractures
• D. Adduction contractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Plantar flexion, or foot drop, is a common complication of complete bed rest and immobility. This condition occurs due to the weakening of muscles that lift the foot, leading to the foot dragging or being unable to clear the ground during walking. Dorsiflexion refers to moving the foot upwards, which is not a typical complication of immobility. Extension contractures involve the inability to fully extend a joint, while adduction contractures refer to the inability to move a limb away from the body. These types of contractures can also occur with immobility, but they are not specifically associated with foot drop.

2. While assessing a one-month-old infant, which of the findings does not warrant further investigation by the nurse?

• A. Abdominal respirations
• B. Inspiratory grunt
• C. Nasal flaring
• D. Cyanosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abdominal respirations in infants are considered normal due to the underdeveloped intercostal muscles. Infants rely more on their abdominal muscles to facilitate breathing since their intercostal muscles are not fully matured. Therefore, abdominal respirations do not typically require further investigation. Inspiratory grunt, nasal flaring, and cyanosis are findings that warrant additional assessment as they can indicate potential respiratory distress or other underlying health issues in infants. Inspiratory grunt may suggest respiratory distress, nasal flaring can be a sign of increased work of breathing, and cyanosis indicates poor oxygenation, all of which require prompt evaluation and intervention to ensure the infant's well-being.

3. Which of the following is an example of intragroup conflict?

• A. A nurse writes a grant for a non-profit organization to raise money for advertising
• B. Members of a multidisciplinary team cannot agree on the best course of action for a client
• C. A client does not receive his medication on time because the nurse was on break
• D. A nurse feels frustrated that her employer does not provide on-site child care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Intragroup conflict refers to disagreements within a group. The correct answer, 'Members of a multidisciplinary team cannot agree on the best course of action for a client,' exemplifies this type of conflict well. In this scenario, professionals within the same team are unable to reach a consensus on how to proceed with client care. Choices A, C, and D do not reflect intragroup conflict. Writing a grant for a non-profit organization, a client not receiving medication due to a nurse's break, and a nurse feeling frustrated about the lack of on-site child care do not involve conflicts within a group of professionals.

4. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:

• A. Excessive fetal weight
• B. Low blood sugar levels
• C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
• D. Progressive placental insufficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.

5. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who had back surgery. All of the following indicate that the client is ready for discharge EXCEPT:

• A. The client still has sutures at the incision site
• B. The client is able to take a shower
• C. The client must still use an ice pack at the wound site
• D. The client has a temperature of 100.8�F

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When determining if a client is ready for discharge after back surgery, it is essential to ensure that there are no signs of complications or emerging issues. A postoperative temperature of 100.8�F may indicate a developing infection, and the client should not be discharged until this is further evaluated by the physician. Choices A, B, and C are indicators that the client is progressing well and ready for discharge, as having sutures, being able to shower, and using an ice pack are typically expected postoperative activities without indicating a need for further hospitalization.

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