a 58 year old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate esr which of the following result
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NCLEX-RN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions

1. A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?

Correct answer: 40 mm/hr

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.

2. A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information?

Correct answer: Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease.

Rationale: The correct answer is that Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the affected gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. If a son receives the X chromosome bearing the gene, he will develop the disease, giving him a 50% chance of being affected. Daughters, on the other hand, are not affected by Duchenne but have a 50% chance of being carriers since they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. The other X chromosome is inherited from the father, who cannot be a carrier. Therefore, choice A is accurate. Choice B is incorrect because daughters do not develop the disease, and sons have a 50% chance of developing, not both having a 50% chance. Choice C is incorrect as it does not consider the X-linked inheritance pattern of Duchenne. Choice D is inaccurate as it incorrectly states that only sons have a 25% chance of developing the disorder, omitting the carrier status of daughters.

3. You are turning your patient in bed and notice that a confused and lethargic patient had loose car keys and lipstick in the bed and had been lying on them. What is this person at risk for due to all three of these factors: confusion, lethargy, and items in the bed?

Correct answer: Skin breakdown

Rationale: This patient is at great risk for skin breakdown due to the presence of three specific risk factors: confusion, lethargy, and items in the bed. While confusion puts the patient at risk for falls, confusion and lethargy together may lead to a lack of mobility. However, skin breakdown is the primary concern in this scenario as it is associated with all three risk factors - confusion, lethargy, and the presence of items in the bed. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Skin breakdown'.

4. A patient born in 1955 had hepatitis A infection 1 year ago. According to Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, which action should the nurse include in care when the patient is seen for a routine annual physical exam?

Correct answer: Ask whether the patient has been screened for hepatitis C.

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in care when the patient is seen for a routine annual physical exam, according to CDC guidelines, is to ask whether the patient has been screened for hepatitis C. CDC guidelines recommend screening patients born between 1945 and 1965 for hepatitis C due to the high prevalence of undiagnosed cases in this age group. Starting the hepatitis B immunization series is not necessary as the patient already had hepatitis A infection. Teaching the patient about hepatitis A immune globulin is not indicated in this scenario. Testing for anti-hepatitis-A virus immune globulin M (anti-HAV-IgM) is not needed as the patient has already had hepatitis A.

5. A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?

Correct answer: A fever that spikes and then lowers without returning to normal

Rationale: A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.

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