Nursing Elites

1. A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?

• A. 5 mm/hr
• B. 12 mm/hr
• C. 28 mm/hr
• D. 40 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.

2. A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)?

• A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa.
• B. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward.
• C. There is low-grade fever.
• D. The lesions have a "teardrop-on-a-rose-petal"? appearance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presence of small blue-white spots on the oral mucosa, known as Koplik's spots, is characteristic of measles (rubeola) infection. These spots typically appear on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molars, 1-2 days before the rash onset, and last until 2 days after the rash appears. While Koplik's spots are pathognomonic for measles, their absence does not rule out the diagnosis. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the rash pattern, presence of low-grade fever, and characteristic appearance of lesions are not specific indicators of measles infection.

3. The OR nursing staff are preparing a client for a surgical procedure. The anesthesiologist has given the client medications, and the client has entered the induction stage of anesthesia. The nursing staff can expect which of the following symptoms and activities from the client during this time?

• A. Irregular breathing patterns
• B. Minimal heartbeat, dilated pupils
• C. Relaxed muscles, regular breathing, constricted pupils
• D. Euphoria, drowsiness, dizziness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the induction stage of anesthesia, the client may exhibit symptoms like euphoria, drowsiness, or dizziness. This stage occurs after the administration of medications by the anesthesiologist and ends when the client loses consciousness. Choice A is incorrect as irregular breathing patterns are not typically associated with the induction stage. Choice B is incorrect as minimal heartbeat and dilated pupils are not commonly observed during this stage. Choice C is incorrect as relaxed muscles, regular breathing, and constricted pupils are not indicative of the induction stage of anesthesia.

4. You are creating a teaching plan for a patient with newly diagnosed migraine headaches. Which key item should NOT be included in the teaching plan?

• A. Avoid foods that contain tyramine, such as alcohol and aged cheese.
• B. Avoid drugs such as Tagamet, nitroglycerin, and Nifedipine.
• C. Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician.
• D. A potential side effect of medications is rebound headache.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician. Medications such as estrogen supplements may actually trigger a migraine headache attack. Fluctuations in estrogen, such as before or during menstrual periods, pregnancy, and menopause, seem to trigger headaches in many women. Choices A and B are important to include in the teaching plan for a patient with migraines as avoiding foods containing tyramine and certain drugs can help prevent migraine triggers. Choice D is also relevant as it is essential for the patient to be aware of potential side effects of medications, including rebound headaches.

5. The nurse is speaking at a community meeting about personal responsibility for health promotion. A participant asks about chiropractic treatment for illnesses. What should be the focus of the nurse's response?

• A. Electrical energy fields
• B. Spinal column manipulation
• C. Mind-body balance
• D. Exercise of joints

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The focus of the nurse's response should be on spinal column manipulation when discussing chiropractic treatment for illnesses. Chiropractic theory emphasizes that misalignment of the vertebrae can interfere with the transmission of mental impulses between the brain and body organs, leading to diseases. Manipulation is aimed at reducing such misalignments, known as subluxations. While mind-body balance and exercise of joints are important aspects of holistic health, in the context of chiropractic treatment, the key intervention is spinal column manipulation to address vertebral misalignments. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary focus of chiropractic treatment.

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