Nursing Elites

1. During her shift at the hospital, a nurse receives a stern reprimand from a physician over something over which she had no control. The nurse does not respond. When she returns home that evening, she sees her children's toys all over the floor, gets mad, and begins to yell at them. Which form of defense mechanism is this nurse using?

• A. Symbolization
• B. Suppression
• C. Displacement
• D. Projection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Displacement is the process of redirecting feelings or impulses from one person to another. In this scenario, the nurse chose not to respond to the physician, but instead displaced her negative emotions onto her children, who are less threatening and more vulnerable. This defense mechanism allowed her to express her anger in a safer outlet. Symbolization involves representing unconscious feelings or impulses through symbols, not redirecting them. Suppression is the conscious effort to push unwanted thoughts or feelings out of awareness, not displacing them onto others. Projection involves attributing one's thoughts or emotions to someone else, which is not evident in this case.

2. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Document that the client responds to the painful stimulus.
• B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
• D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.

3. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?

• A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
• B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
• C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
• D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.

4. The nurse determines that a postoperative client's respiratory rate has increased from 18 to 24 breaths/min. Based on this assessment finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to increase ambulation in the room.
• B. Offer the client a high-carbohydrate snack for energy.
• C. Force fluids to thin the client's pulmonary secretions.
• D. Determine if pain is causing the client's tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a postoperative client's respiratory rate increases, it is essential to determine the underlying cause. Pain, anxiety, and fluid accumulation in the lungs can lead to tachypnea (increased respiratory rate). Therefore, the priority intervention is to assess if pain is the contributing factor. Encouraging increased ambulation may worsen oxygen desaturation in a client with a rising respiratory rate. Offering a high-carbohydrate snack is not indicated as it can increase carbon metabolism; instead, consider providing an alternative energy source like Pulmocare liquid supplement. Forcing fluids may exacerbate respiratory congestion in a client with a compromised cardiopulmonary system, potentially leading to fluid overload. Therefore, determining the role of pain in tachypnea is crucial for appropriate management.

5. A hospitalized client has had difficulty falling asleep for two nights and is becoming irritable and restless. Which action by the nurse is best?

• A. Determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows.
• B. Instruct the UAP not to wake the client under any circumstances during the night.
• C. Place a 'Do Not Disturb' sign on the door and change assessments from every 4 to every 8 hours.
• D. Encourage the client to avoid pain medication during the day, which might increase daytime napping.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: By determining the client's usual bedtime routine and incorporating these rituals into the care plan, the nurse can help the client fall asleep faster and improve the quality of care without compromising safety. This approach respects the client's individual needs and preferences. In contrast, options B, C, and D do not address the client's sleep issue effectively and may even compromise the client's safety or standard of care. Option B fails to address the underlying problem of the client's sleep disturbance, while option C reduces the frequency of assessments, which can impact the timely identification of changes in the client's condition. Option D focuses on pain medication and daytime napping, which are not directly related to the client's current sleep difficulties.

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