an older woman has lived alone since the death of her husband 10 years ago and she has a long list of vague complaints which assessment is the priorit
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions

1. An older woman has lived alone since the death of her husband 10 years ago, and she has a long list of vague complaints. Which assessment is the priority for the home health nurse to perform?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority assessment for the home health nurse in this scenario is to determine if there are safety issues. The client is an older woman living alone with a long list of vague complaints, indicating several risk factors. Ensuring her safety should be the primary concern. While assessing for feelings of loneliness, isolation, or grief is important, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence due to her vulnerable situation. Although assessing the availability of support systems is essential in a home health assessment, safety issues must be addressed first given the client's profile.

2. After 5 years of unprotected intercourse, a childless couple comes to the fertility clinic. The husband tells the nurse that his parents have promised to make a down payment on a house for them if his wife gets pregnant this year. Which response would the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the emotional challenge the couple is facing due to the added pressure of the incentive from the husband's parents. By expressing empathy and understanding, the nurse encourages the couple to open up about their feelings and concerns. Choice B is not the best response as it dismisses the husband's situation and fails to address the emotional impact of the added pressure. Choice C focuses on the parents' offer rather than the couple's emotional state, which is not the primary concern in this situation. Choice D, mentioning the duration of infertility, may come across as insensitive and may hinder open communication by potentially making the couple feel judged or discouraged.

3. During a scheduled health maintenance visit, which common source of stress for a 6-year-old client would the nurse include in the teaching session?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A common source of stress for a 6-year-old school-age client is competition, such as wanting to be first or the best (winning). This aspect can create stress for a 6-year-old as they navigate social interactions and activities. Therefore, the nurse would address this issue during the teaching session at the health maintenance visit. Demanding privacy, having a desire to be like an idol, and being more selective with playmates are characteristics more commonly associated with 7-year-old clients, not typically seen in the stressors of a 6-year-old. Understanding age-appropriate stressors is crucial for providing tailored education and support in pediatric care.

4. The client is 5 feet from the bathroom door when he states, 'I feel faint.' Before the nurse can get the client to a chair, the client starts to fall. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to gently lower the client to the floor (Option D). This action is crucial to prevent injury to both the client and the nurse. Lowering the client to the floor should be done when the client is unable to support his own weight, ensuring a safe position to prevent falls. Checking the client's carotid pulse (Option A) is important, but it should be performed after ensuring the client's safety. Encouraging the client to get to the toilet (Option B) is impractical as the client is already falling. Calling for help in a loud voice (Option C) may cause chaos and alarm other clients, making it a less suitable immediate action in this scenario.

5. What is the nurse's priority action when a client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells experiences tingling in the fingers and headache?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion experiences tingling in the fingers and headache, these symptoms may indicate an adverse reaction to the transfusion. The nurse's priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion and initiate a normal saline infusion at a keep vein open (KVO) rate. This helps maintain the client's vein patency while addressing the adverse reactions. After stopping the transfusion and initiating the saline infusion, the nurse should assess the client, including vital signs evaluation. Subsequently, the healthcare provider should be notified. Calling the healthcare provider is important, but it should be done after the immediate action of stopping the transfusion. Slowing the infusion rate is not appropriate during a suspected transfusion reaction as it can exacerbate the adverse effects. Assessing the IV site for infiltration is a routine nursing intervention and is not the priority when managing a potential adverse reaction to a blood transfusion.

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