NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. An older woman has lived alone since the death of her husband 10 years ago, and she has a long list of vague complaints. Which assessment is the priority for the home health nurse to perform?
- A. Assess for feelings of loneliness and isolation.
- B. Determine if the client has unresolved grief.
- C. Determine if there are safety issues.
- D. Ask about the availability of support systems.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority assessment for the home health nurse in this scenario is to determine if there are safety issues. The client is an older woman living alone with a long list of vague complaints, indicating several risk factors. Ensuring her safety should be the primary concern. While assessing for feelings of loneliness, isolation, or grief is important, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence due to her vulnerable situation. Although assessing the availability of support systems is essential in a home health assessment, safety issues must be addressed first given the client's profile.
2. A client asks the nurse, 'Should I tell my partner that I just found out I'm human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive?' Which is the nurse's most appropriate response?
- A. Do not tell your partner unless asked.
- B. This is a decision you alone can make.
- C. You are having difficulty deciding what to say.
- D. Tell your partner that you don't know how you became sick.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate response for the nurse in this situation is to acknowledge the client's struggle in deciding what to communicate to their partner. By stating 'You are having difficulty deciding what to say,' the nurse validates the client's feelings and encourages further discussion. Option A is incorrect as it suggests withholding information unless asked, which may not align with ethical principles of honesty and transparency in relationships. Option B, while acknowledging the client's autonomy, does not provide direct support or guidance. Option D is inappropriate as it involves dishonesty by suggesting telling the partner an untruthful reason for the illness.
3. When a client who has had a mastectomy sees her incision for the first time, she exclaims, 'I look horrible! Will it ever look better?' Which response would the nurse provide?
- A. 'You seem shocked by the way you look now.'
- B. 'Now that the tumor is gone, the area will heal quickly.'
- C. After it heals, others won't even know you had surgery.'
- D. 'You will feel better about it when the swelling subsides.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response, 'You seem shocked by the way you look now,' acknowledges the client's feelings and provides an opportunity for the client to express emotions freely. This reflection of feelings may help promote eventual acceptance of body image changes. Choices B, C, and D provide false reassurance and negate the client's feelings. Saying that the area will heal quickly now that the tumor is gone dismisses the client's concerns. Similarly, stating that others won't know about the surgery or that the client will feel better once the swelling subsides does not address the client's current emotional state and may undermine trust in the nurse-client relationship.
4. For a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, which reaction is most likely to occur when the performance of a ritual is interrupted?
- A. Anxiety
- B. Hostility
- C. Aggression
- D. Withdrawal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is interrupted while performing a ritual, the most likely reaction is anxiety. The compulsive ritual serves as a coping mechanism to control anxiety, so any disruption to this ritual can heighten the individual's anxiety levels. Hostility is typically part of the disorder itself and not a direct reaction to the interruption of the ritual. Aggression may occur only if anxiety escalates to a panic level, leading to overt anger expression. Withdrawal is not a common behavioral pattern associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and is not a typical reaction to ritual interruption.
5. The nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night. Which client statement indicates that the nurse should further assess the medication order?
- A. At home, I take my pills at 8:00 am.
- B. It costs a lot of money to buy all of these pills.
- C. I get so tired of taking pills every day.
- D. This is a new pill I have never taken before.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client stating, 'This is a new pill I have never taken before,' is the correct answer as it indicates a potential discrepancy in the medication order. This statement requires further assessment to ensure the medication is correct, verify if it is a new prescription or a different manufacturer, and determine if the client needs additional instructions. While the timing of medication administration (option A) is important, it may not be as critical as ensuring the accuracy of the medication being administered. Option B, regarding the cost of pills, is relevant for discharge planning but does not directly impact the immediate administration of the medication. Option C, expressing tiredness from taking pills daily, may warrant discussion on adherence or side effects but does not raise immediate concerns about the specific medication being administered.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access