Nursing Elites

1. An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

• A. Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
• B. Craniosynostosis, with premature closure of the cranial sutures
• C. Plagiocephaly, with flattening of one side of the head
• D. Hydrocephalus, with increased head size

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is torticollis, characterized by the shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of cranial sutures, leading to an abnormal head shape but not necessarily affecting head position. Plagiocephaly is flattening of one side of the head due to external forces or positioning, not muscle shortening. Hydrocephalus presents with an increased head size due to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, not with a fixed head position.

2. What question must the nurse ask when formulating a nursing diagnosis?

• A. What diagnosis did the physician make for this client?
• B. What is the issue that I can solve for this client?
• C. What physician orders will resolve this issue?
• D. What underlying disease does this client have?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When formulating a nursing diagnosis, the nurse should focus on identifying the client's specific health problems that can be addressed through nursing interventions. The correct answer emphasizes the nurse's role in identifying and addressing client-specific issues through nursing care. Choice A is incorrect because nursing diagnoses are distinct from medical diagnoses made by physicians. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on physician orders rather than the nurse's role in diagnosing and addressing client problems. Choice D is incorrect because it pertains to identifying underlying diseases, which is not the primary focus of nursing diagnoses.

3. OSHA has very strict standards for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or patients who have been exposed to them. These regulations include all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Respiratory protection must be provided to all employees who might be exposed.
• B. Training on respiratory protection must be provided.
• C. Employers must provide personal protective equipment to all employees.
• D. All ED personnel must be trained in decontamination procedures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: OSHA regulations for hospital employees dealing with hazardous materials or exposed patients require respiratory protection for potentially exposed employees, training on respiratory protection, and the provision of personal protective equipment. However, not all ED personnel are required to be trained in decontamination procedures. While all ED staff should have a basic understanding of hazmat situations, specific training in decontamination procedures is only necessary for those who will be directly involved in the decontamination process. Therefore, the correct answer is that all ED personnel must be trained in decontamination procedures, as this is not a mandatory requirement under OSHA regulations for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or exposed patients.

4. Which of the following is an example of low health literacy skills?

• A. A nurse is unable to explain the dose, indications, side effects, and structural formula of carbamazepine
• B. A client cannot read an admission form to sign it
• C. A nurse cannot calculate the correct IV rate for Ringer's lactate
• D. A nurse is unable to explain the dose, indications, side effects, and structural formula of carbamazepine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Low health literacy skills are exemplified by an individual's inability to comprehend health-related information. In this scenario, a client's inability to read an admission form to sign it indicates low health literacy. This lack of understanding can hinder their ability to make informed decisions about their healthcare. The other choices involve healthcare professionals and their knowledge or skills, not the health literacy of individuals seeking care.

5. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is exhibiting Kussmaul respirations, characterized by rapid, deep, and regular breathing. This type of respiratory pattern is commonly seen in metabolic acidosis, such as in diabetic ketoacidosis. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation, leading to the elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, is characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea and is not typically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, Biot's respirations, involve irregular breathing patterns with periods of apnea and are not reflective of the described breathing pattern. Cluster breathing, as mentioned in Choice D, is not a recognized term in respiratory patterns and does not describe the breathing pattern observed in Mr. N.

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