Nursing Elites

1. An ambulatory client reports edema during the day in his feet and an ankle that disappears while sleeping at night. What is the most appropriate follow-up question for the nurse to ask?

• A. Have you had a recent heart attack?
• B. Do you become short of breath during your normal daily activities?
• C. How many pillows do you use at night to sleep comfortably?
• D. Do you smoke?

Correct answer: Do you become short of breath during your normal daily activities?

Rationale: The correct answer is asking about shortness of breath during normal daily activities because these symptoms suggest right-sided heart failure, leading to increased pressure in the systemic venous system. This pressure causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. In an ambulatory patient, lower extremities are typically affected first due to gravity. By asking about shortness of breath, the nurse can gather information to confirm the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance and fluid volume excess, both associated with right-sided heart failure. The other choices are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the client's presenting symptoms.

2. Which reaction toward the physical symptom would the nurse observe in a client with conversion disorder?

• A. Anger
• B. Apathy
• C. Anxiety
• D. Agitation

Correct answer: B: Apathy

Rationale: In conversion disorder, the nurse would observe apathy toward the physical symptom. The development of the symptom serves as an unconscious method of reducing anxiety. The symptom is accepted passively, known as 'la belle indifférence.' There is no anger observed as symptoms are passively accepted. Similarly, there is no direct anxiety related to the physical symptom, as the conflict is resolved through the symptom development. While many individuals might experience agitation and seek to identify the cause of physical symptoms, in conversion disorder, there is an unusual calmness or indifference towards the physical manifestation, indicating apathy rather than other emotional responses.

3. An adolescent reports irregularity in menses. Her mother complains that her child often fears gaining weight, has poor caloric intake, and has a distorted self-image. Which could be the reason for irregular menses?

• A. Bulimia
• B. Anorexia
• C. Orthorexia
• D. Binge eating disorder

Correct answer: Anorexia

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anorexia.' Anorexia is characterized by a lack of caloric intake motivated by a strong fear of gaining weight, leading to poor nutrition and potential irregular menses. Bulimia involves binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors. Orthorexia is characterized by an obsession with eating only healthy or 'pure' foods. Binge eating disorder is characterized by consuming large amounts of high-calorie food in a short period.

4. The client prepares to insert a nasogastric tube in a client with hyperemesis who is awake and alert. Which intervention(s) is(are) correct?

• A. Place the client in a high Fowler position.
• B. Assist the client in assuming a left side-lying position.
• C. Measure the tube from the tip of the nose to the xiphoid process.
• D. Assist the client in flexing the neck forward to facilitate tube insertion.

Correct answer: Place the client in a high Fowler position.

Rationale: The correct intervention during nasogastric tube insertion in an awake and alert client is to place them in a high Fowler position (A). Left side-lying position (B) is more suitable for unconscious or obtunded clients. When measuring the tube length, it should be from the tip of the nose to behind the ear, and then from behind the ear to the xiphoid process (C). Assisting the client in flexing the neck forward (D) is appropriate to facilitate tube insertion rather than extending the neck back, which may lead to complications. Proper positioning and measurements are crucial to prevent complications and ensure successful nasogastric tube placement.

5. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?

• A. Maintain standard precautions.
• B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.

Correct answer: Maintain standard precautions.

Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.

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