NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. After giving birth to her third child, a client tearfully says to the nurse, 'How much more can I give of myself?' Which principle would the nurse consider in the care of any new mother?
- A. It is easier to adjust to the first child than to later ones.
- B. Feeling anger and resentment toward a child is pathological.
- C. Some parents experience feelings of being overwhelmed by multiple children.
- D. Parents usually have inborn feelings of love and acceptance of their children.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A parent's feeling of being overwhelmed by multiple children is a normal response. It is vital to help parents realize this as a means of easing feelings of guilt and shame. The first child causes the greatest amount of adjustment in one's life. It is common for parents to feel anger and resentment toward their children at times due to the challenges of parenting. Stating that parents usually have inborn feelings of love and acceptance of their children is a false generalization and may not hold true for everyone. Therefore, the most appropriate principle for the nurse to consider in this situation is that some parents may experience feelings of being overwhelmed by multiple children.
2. A client who is to undergo dilation and curettage and conization of the cervix for cancer appears tense and anxious. Which approach would the nurse use to support the client emotionally?
- A. Explaining that these procedures are considered minor surgery
- B. Asking whether something is troubling the client and whether she'd like to talk about it
- C. Stating that the procedures are routine and asking what the client is really worried about
- D. Explaining that everyone is fearful before the surgery even though there is little reason to worry
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct approach for the nurse to support the client emotionally is to ask whether something is troubling the client and if she would like to talk about it. This approach acknowledges the client's anxiety and encourages communication without dismissing her feelings. Option A, explaining that the procedures are minor surgery, may invalidate the client's emotions. Option C assumes the client is worried about something specific, which may not be the case, leading to miscommunication. Option D provides false reassurance and may hinder open communication by dismissing the client's feelings as unwarranted.
3. The best way for a healthcare provider and a healthcare facility to control the effects of poor and disruptive patient behavior is to _________________.
- A. prevent it
- B. restrain the patient
- C. medicate the patient
- D. isolate the patient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most effective approach to managing poor and disruptive patient behavior is by preventing it proactively. This involves implementing strategies, communication techniques, and environmental modifications that address the underlying causes of the behavior. Restraint, medication, and isolation should only be used as a last resort when the patient or others are at risk of harm. Restraint and isolation are primarily used to ensure safety, while medication, especially when used solely to control behavior, can have adverse effects and is considered a measure of last resort. Therefore, prevention is crucial in promoting a therapeutic environment and fostering positive patient outcomes.
4. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. Meperidine
- C. Ziprasidone
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.
5. An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with which of the following illnesses?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Depression
- C. Alzheimer's disease
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with schizophrenia. Dopamine dysregulation is linked to some symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Depression (choice B) is more commonly associated with abnormalities in serotonin and norepinephrine. Alzheimer's disease (choice C) is primarily characterized by deficits in acetylcholine and other neurotransmitters. Anxiety disorders (choice D) are often linked to imbalances in neurotransmitters like serotonin, norepinephrine, and GABA, rather than dopamine.
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