Nursing Elites

1. A triage nurse has four clients arrive in the emergency department within 15 minutes. Which client should the triage nurse send back to be seen first?

• A. A 2-month-old infant with a history of rolling off the bed and having a bulging fontanelle with crying
• B. A teenager who suffered singed facial hair while camping
• C. An elderly client with complaints of frequent liquid brown-colored stools
• D. A middle-aged client with intermittent pain behind the right scapula

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the teenager who suffered singed facial hair while camping. This client is in the greatest danger with a potential risk of respiratory distress. Singed facial hair indicates exposure to heat or fire in close range, which could have caused serious damage to the interior of the lungs. It's crucial to prioritize this client as the interior lining of the lungs has no nerve fibers, so swelling may not be immediately noticeable. The other choices, while concerning, do not present an immediate life-threatening situation. The infant's condition may be serious but does not pose an immediate danger of respiratory distress. The elderly client's symptoms could indicate gastrointestinal issues, which are important but not as urgent as potential respiratory compromise. The middle-aged client's pain behind the right scapula, while uncomfortable, does not indicate an acute life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention.

2. When examining an infant, which area should the nurse examine first?

• A. Ear
• B. Nose
• C. Throat
• D. Abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When examining an infant, the nurse should start by examining the least-distressing areas first before moving on to more invasive areas. The abdomen is typically the least distressing area to examine, so it should be assessed first. Examining the eye, ear, nose, and throat are considered more invasive and should be saved for last. Therefore, the correct choice is to examine the abdomen first to ensure a comfortable and less distressing examination process for the infant. Choices A, B, and C (Ear, Nose, Throat) are more invasive areas and should be examined after the abdomen.

3. Why should a palpated pressure be performed before auscultating blood pressure?

• A. To more clearly hear the Korotkoff sounds.
• B. To detect the presence of an auscultatory gap.
• C. To avoid missing a falsely elevated blood pressure.
• D. To more readily identify phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a palpated pressure before auscultating blood pressure helps in detecting the presence of an auscultatory gap. An auscultatory gap is a period during blood pressure measurement when Korotkoff sounds temporarily disappear before reappearing. Inflation of the cuff 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point where a palpated pulse disappears helps in identifying this gap. This technique ensures accurate blood pressure measurement by preventing the underestimation of blood pressure values. The other options are incorrect because palpating the pressure is not primarily done to hear Korotkoff sounds more clearly, avoid missing falsely elevated blood pressure, or readily identify a specific phase of Korotkoff sounds.

4. Patients exhibiting signs of cyanosis will:

• A. show signs of hyperoxia.
• B. have increased O2 saturation.
• C. have blood levels of CO2 higher than O2 levels.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes resulting from low blood oxygen levels. When a patient exhibits cyanosis, it indicates that their blood is poorly oxygenated, leading to a higher concentration of CO2 compared to oxygen. Options A and B are incorrect as cyanosis is associated with low oxygen levels, not hyperoxia or increased O2 saturation. Therefore, the correct answer is that patients exhibiting cyanosis will have blood levels of CO2 higher than O2 levels.

5. A client is having difficulties reading an educational pamphlet. He cannot find his glasses. In order to read the words, he must hold the pamphlet at arm's length, which allows him to read the information. Which vision deficit does this client most likely suffer from?

• A. Cataracts
• B. Glaucoma
• C. Astigmatism
• D. Presbyopia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Presbyopia is a condition that occurs when the lens of the eye loses accommodation and is unable to focus light on objects nearby. As a result, clients are unable to see or read items up close but may have success when holding the same item at arm's length. Many clients with presbyopia must wear bifocals, but long-distance vision remains unaffected. Cataracts involve clouding of the eye's lens, leading to blurry vision. Glaucoma is associated with increased intraocular pressure that damages the optic nerve, causing vision loss. Astigmatism is a refractive error where the cornea or lens has an irregular shape, leading to distorted or blurred vision.

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