NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. A 20-year-old young adult has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erikson, which of the following stages is the adult in?
- A. Trust vs. mistrust
- B. Initiative vs. guilt
- C. Autonomy vs. shame
- D. Intimacy vs. isolation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The young adult, at 20 years old, is in the stage of Intimacy vs. Isolation according to Erikson's psychosocial theory. This stage typically occurs during young adulthood, between the ages of approximately 19 and 40. The primary conflict in this stage revolves around the development of intimate, loving relationships with others. This stage focuses on establishing close bonds and connections with others, seeking emotional closeness and commitment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Trust vs. mistrust is the stage that occurs in infancy, Initiative vs. guilt is in early childhood, and Autonomy vs. shame is in toddlerhood. These stages each represent different developmental challenges and conflicts that individuals face at various points in their lives.
2. A client says, 'I hear a man speaking from the corner of the room. Do you hear him, too?' Which response is best?
- A. What is he saying to you? Does it make any sense?
- B. Yes, I hear him. What do you think he is saying?
- C. No one is in the corner of the room. Can't you see that?
- D. No, I don't hear him, but that must be upsetting for you.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response is D: 'No, I don't hear him, but that must be upsetting for you.' This response acknowledges the client's experience without validating the hallucination. The nurse expresses empathy by acknowledging the client's feelings ('that must be upsetting for you'), showing understanding and support. Choice A focuses on the content of the hallucination, which may inadvertently reinforce the delusion. Choice B validates the hallucination by agreeing that the nurse also hears the man. Choice C denies the client's experience and can lead to further distress by invalidating their perception.
3. Which reaction toward the physical symptom would the nurse observe in a client with conversion disorder?
- A. Anger
- B. Apathy
- C. Anxiety
- D. Agitation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In conversion disorder, the nurse would observe apathy toward the physical symptom. The development of the symptom serves as an unconscious method of reducing anxiety. The symptom is accepted passively, known as 'la belle indiff�rence.' There is no anger observed as symptoms are passively accepted. Similarly, there is no direct anxiety related to the physical symptom, as the conflict is resolved through the symptom development. While many individuals might experience agitation and seek to identify the cause of physical symptoms, in conversion disorder, there is an unusual calmness or indifference towards the physical manifestation, indicating apathy rather than other emotional responses.
4. A 17-year-old Asian client is being seen for lower abdominal pain in the right quadrant. The client is accompanied by his parents. The nurse notes that the client's father does not make eye contact and shows little response when told that the client will need surgery. Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the nurse?
- A. Contact an interpreter to give the information again in the father's native language
- B. Continue to provide information about surgery to both the client and his parents
- C. Call social services to evaluate the parent's standard of care
- D. Contact the physician about postponing the surgery
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nurses may work with clients who have varying cultural beliefs. Because of this, nurses must remain aware of the cultural practices associated with certain ethnic groups. Asian Americans may avoid eye contact as a sign of respect; additionally, emotional responses may be avoided except for in private situations. If this family did not have a language barrier, the nurse should continue to provide appropriate information about the surgery and recognize the cultural differences that exist. Contacting an interpreter is not necessary as there was no mention of a language barrier. Calling social services to evaluate the parent's standard of care is premature and not within the nurse's immediate scope of practice. Contacting the physician about postponing the surgery is not warranted based on the information provided.
5. While explaining an illness to a 10-year-old, what should the nurse keep in mind about cognitive development at this age?
- A. They are able to make simple associations of ideas.
- B. They are able to think logically in organizing facts.
- C. Interpretation of events originates from their own perspective.
- D. Conclusions are based on previous experiences.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that 10-year-olds are able to think logically in organizing facts. At this age, children are in the concrete operational stage according to Piaget's theory of cognitive development. In this stage, they can understand and organize information logically and can manipulate objects mentally. Choice A is incorrect because simple associations of ideas are more characteristic of earlier developmental stages. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to egocentrism, which is more typical of the preoperational stage. Choice D is incorrect as basing conclusions on previous experiences is a broader concept that applies across different ages and stages of development, rather than being specific to 10-year-olds in the concrete operational stage.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access