NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A client with a new prescription for lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder is being educated by a nurse on early indications of toxicity. The nurse should include which of the following manifestations in the teachings?
- A. Constipation
- B. Polyuria
- C. Rash
- D. Tinnitus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Polyuria is a crucial early indication of lithium toxicity. It results from the drug's effect on the kidneys, leading to increased urine output. This is a significant symptom to monitor as it can indicate potential toxicity. Constipation, rash, and tinnitus are not typically associated with early indications of lithium toxicity. Constipation is more commonly seen as a side effect of some medications, while rash and tinnitus are not specific indicators of lithium toxicity.
2. You have noticed that the last several patients you have cared for have had questionable blood pressure readings from their arterial lines. When checked against cuff pressures, a discrepancy has been noted, and further investigation has revealed faulty transducers. This is not the first product issue with this company. What positive step could you take to help resolve this situation?
- A. Use the old stock from a previous company
- B. Verify the cuff pressures every hour to ensure accuracy
- C. Notify the risk manager
- D. Form a peer workgroup to evaluate new products
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Forming a peer workgroup to evaluate new products would be an excellent opportunity for collaboration among peers, management, and the purchasing department. When clinicians are engaged to work toward solutions that address patient care issues, they experience more empowerment and control over their work environments. Choice A is incorrect because using old stock from a previous company does not address the root cause of the faulty transducers from the current company. Choice B is incorrect as verifying cuff pressures every hour does not directly address the issue of faulty transducers. Choice C is less effective than forming a peer workgroup as it involves only notifying the risk manager without involving a collaborative effort to resolve the product issue.
3. A client has started sweating profusely due to intense heat. His overall luid volume is low and he has developed electrolyte imbalance. This client is most likely suffering from:
- A. Malignant hyperthermia
- B. Heat exhaustion
- C. Heat stroke
- D. Heat cramps
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Heat exhaustion occurs when a person has enough diaphoresis that he becomes dehydrated. Intense sweating can cause both luid and electrolyte imbalances. Untreated heat exhaustion can lead to heat stroke, which results in organ damage, loss of consciousness, or death.
4. The client is receiving discharge teaching seven (7) days post myocardial infarction and inquires why he must wait six (6) weeks before engaging in sexual intercourse. What is the best response by the nurse to this question?
- A. "You need to regain your strength before attempting such exertion."?
- B. "When you can climb 2 flights of stairs without problems, it is generally safe."?
- C. "Have a glass of wine to relax you, then you can try to have sex."?
- D. "If you can maintain an active walking program, you will have less risk."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Following a myocardial infarction, there is a risk of cardiac rupture at the site of the infarction for approximately six (6) weeks until scar tissue forms. The advice to wait until the client can climb two flights of stairs without issues is common among healthcare providers as it indicates an adequate level of physical exertion tolerance and suggests a lower risk of complications during sexual activity. Choice A is not specific to the recovery timeline related to sexual activity post-myocardial infarction. Choice C is inappropriate as alcohol consumption should not be recommended before sexual activity. Choice D, though promoting an active lifestyle, does not directly address the safety concerns related to sexual intercourse post-myocardial infarction.
5. When a nurse is asked by a physician to speak to a colleague about their unprofessional behavior in front of a client but chooses not to confront the colleague and avoids the physician the next day, what type of conflict resolution is the nurse exhibiting?
- A. Accommodation
- B. Competition
- C. Avoidance
- D. Negotiation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse is exhibiting the conflict resolution strategy of avoidance. Avoidance involves ignoring the problem in the hope that it will go away on its own. In this scenario, the nurse avoids confronting the colleague and stays away from the physician, which does not address the issue directly. While avoidance may provide time for others to gain insight into the situation, it typically does not lead to a resolution of the underlying problems. Accommodation (A) involves yielding to the wishes of others, competition (B) entails pursuing one's own concerns at the expense of others, and negotiation (D) involves seeking a mutually agreeable solution through communication and compromise, none of which are demonstrated by the nurse in this situation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access