Nursing Elites

1. A client must use a non-rebreathing oxygen mask. Which of the following statements is true regarding this type of mask?

• A. A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%.
• B. A client should breathe through his or her mouth when using a non-rebreather.
• C. A non-rebreather offers a reservoir from which the client inhales.
• D. The mask of a non-rebreather should be changed every 3 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A non-rebreather mask is used for supplemental oxygen delivery for clients experiencing breathing difficulties. The non-rebreather mask includes a one-way valve that allows exhaled air to escape, preventing the rebreathing of carbon dioxide. The client inhales oxygenated air from a reservoir bag attached to the mask, providing high-concentration oxygen therapy. A non-rebreather mask can deliver FiO2 levels of up to 90%, making it an effective intervention for clients requiring high oxygen concentrations. Therefore, the statement that 'A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%' is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clients should breathe through their nose and mouth, the mask offers a reservoir for inhaling oxygen, and the mask should be assessed and potentially replaced if soiled or damaged, not routinely changed every 3 hours.

2. What does the 'B' in the SBAR acronym stand for?

• A. Background
• B. Basic
• C. Beginning
• D. Break

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 'B' in the SBAR acronym stands for Background. SBAR is a standardized communication tool used in healthcare to effectively communicate critical information. In this context, 'Background' refers to providing relevant information about the patient's history, current status, and any other pertinent details. This information helps ensure clear and concise communication between healthcare providers, enhancing patient care. Choice B, 'Basic,' is incorrect as the 'B' specifically emphasizes the detailed background information. Choices C and D, 'Beginning' and 'Break,' are not accurate in the context of the SBAR communication tool.

3. An adolescent brings a physician's note to school stating that he is not to participate in sports due to a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease. Which of the following statements about the disease is correct?

• A. The condition is not caused by the student's competitive swimming schedule.
• B. The student will most likely not require surgical intervention.
• C. The student experiences pain in the inferior aspect of the knee.
• D. The student is not trying to avoid participation in physical education.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease occurs in adolescents during the rapid growth phase when the infrapatellar ligament of the quadriceps muscle pulls on the tibial tubercle, causing pain and swelling in the inferior aspect of the knee. The condition is commonly caused by activities that require repeated use of the quadriceps, such as track and soccer. Choice A is incorrect because Osgood-Schlatter disease is not specifically linked to competitive swimming. Choice B is incorrect as surgical intervention is not usually necessary for this condition. Choice D is incorrect as the student is not trying to avoid physical education but is restricted from participating in sports due to the diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease.

4. As a nurse, you have been assigned to take over as charge nurse without any report after the previous charge nurse fell during her shift and was taken to the emergency room. At the end of the shift, you have made the assignments for the next shift's nurses and posted them. As the nurses come in, they begin to complain that the assignments make no sense based on patient acuity. One refuses to take her assignment and threatens to go home. What could you have done to prevent their dissatisfaction?

• A. Reviewed the notes of the previous charge nurse
• B. Tried to contact the previous charge nurse in the emergency room
• C. Collaborated with the nurse manager
• D. Collaborated with the other nurses on your shift

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Collaborating with the other nurses on your shift would have permitted them to provide the most updated information regarding patient status and acuity. Requesting their input into creating assignments would have provided shared governance and assurance that the unit staffing was arranged appropriately. Reviewing the notes of the previous charge nurse might not capture the real-time changes in patient conditions. Trying to contact the previous charge nurse in the emergency room may not be feasible or timely. Collaborating with the nurse manager could be helpful, but involving the nurses directly impacted by the assignments would have been more effective in addressing their concerns and ensuring appropriate patient care.

5. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:

• A. Excessive fetal weight
• B. Low blood sugar levels
• C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
• D. Progressive placental insufficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.

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