Nursing Elites

1. A patient is diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which of the following blood pressures would you expect to see in this patient prior to taking medications for the condition?

• A. 142/92
• B. 118/72
• C. 120/80
• D. 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before starting medications for essential hypertension, a patient would typically present with a blood pressure reading equal to or greater than 140/90. This indicates high blood pressure and is characteristic of essential hypertension. Choice A, 142/92, falls within this range, making it the correct answer. Choices B (118/72), C (120/80), and D (138/88) all have blood pressure readings that are within the normal range and would not typically be expected in a patient diagnosed with essential hypertension. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the elevated blood pressure levels seen in essential hypertension.

2. Which technique is correct when assessing the radial pulse of a patient?

• A. Palpate for 1 minute if the rhythm is irregular.
• B. Palpate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 if the rhythm is regular.
• C. Palpate for 2 full minutes to detect any variation in amplitude.
• D. Palpate for 10 seconds and multiply by 6 if the rhythm is regular and the patient has no history of cardiac abnormalities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing the radial pulse, if the rhythm is irregular, the pulse should be counted for a full minute to get an accurate representation of the pulse rate. In cases where the rhythm is regular, the recommended technique is to palpate for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4 to calculate the beats per minute. This method is more accurate and efficient for normal or rapid heart rates. Palpating for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not as effective, as any error in counting results in a larger discrepancy in the calculated heart rate. Palpating for 2 full minutes is excessive and not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Palpating for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6 is not a standard technique and may lead to inaccuracies, especially in patients with cardiac abnormalities.

3. The nurse is teaching a student nurse about the different types of thermometers. When teaching the student about the advantages of the tympanic membrane thermometer (TMT), which statement would the nurse include?

• A. "Measuring temperature using the TMT is cost-effective."?
• B. "The rapid measurement of the TMT is beneficial for uncooperative younger children."?
• C. "TMT is not recommended for measuring core body temperature in newborn infants."?
• D. "TMT is not the preferred method for measuring body temperature in patients with otitis media."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is "The rapid measurement of the TMT is beneficial for uncooperative younger children." TMT is ideal for young children who may not cooperate for oral temperatures or fear rectal temperatures. However, using TMT for newborn infants is not recommended due to inconsistencies in results. Measuring temperature with TMT is not necessarily cost-effective. The most accurate method for measuring core temperature is through rectal temperatures. TMT may not be the preferred method for patients with otitis media due to potential inaccuracies caused by fluid behind the tympanic membrane.

4. Which of the following items of subjective client data would be documented in the medical record by the nurse?

• A. Client's face is pale
• B. Cervical lymph nodes are palpable
• C. Nursing assistant reports client refused lunch
• D. Client feels nauseated

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Client feels nauseated.' Subjective data refers to the client's sensations, feelings, and perception of their health status. It can only be reported by the client as it is based on their personal experiences. The feeling of nausea is a subjective symptom that the client experiences and can provide insight into their health condition. Choices A and B represent objective data, as they describe observable or measurable findings that can be detected by the nurse. Choice C involves information reported by someone other than the client, making it indirect and not purely subjective.

5. A nursing care plan states, 'Assist the patient to the bedside commode PRN.' When will this patient get this assistance to the commode?

• A. Whenever needed
• B. At bedtime
• C. During the night
• D. During the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Whenever needed.' The abbreviation 'PRN' stands for 'pro re nata,' which translates to 'as needed' or 'whenever necessary.' This means that the patient will receive assistance to the commode whenever they require it, based on their individual needs and condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because 'PRN' does not specify a specific time like bedtime, during the night, or during the day; instead, it indicates assistance based on the patient's needs.

Similar Questions