Nursing Elites

1. A patient is diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which of the following blood pressures would you expect to see in this patient prior to taking medications for the condition?

• A. 142/92
• B. 118/72
• C. 120/80
• D. 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before starting medications for essential hypertension, a patient would typically present with a blood pressure reading equal to or greater than 140/90. This indicates high blood pressure and is characteristic of essential hypertension. Choice A, 142/92, falls within this range, making it the correct answer. Choices B (118/72), C (120/80), and D (138/88) all have blood pressure readings that are within the normal range and would not typically be expected in a patient diagnosed with essential hypertension. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the elevated blood pressure levels seen in essential hypertension.

2. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 20-year-old marathon runner and documents the following vital signs: temperature"?36�C; pulse"?48 beats per minute; respirations"?14 breaths per minute; blood pressure"?104/68 mm Hg. Which statement is true concerning these results?

• A. The patient is experiencing bradycardia.
• B. These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
• C. The patient's pulse rate is not normal"?no action is required.
• D. The patient's next clinic visit should occur as scheduled.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.' A pulse rate of 48 beats per minute is considered bradycardia in adults, but it is not a concern in well-trained athletes like marathon runners. Bradycardia is a normal physiological response to aerobic conditioning. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is defined as a pulse rate above 100 beats per minute, which is not the case here. The low pulse rate in this scenario is a reflection of the athlete's cardiovascular fitness. Therefore, there is no need to notify the physician or schedule a follow-up visit based on these findings.

3. During the implementation phase of the nursing process when working with a hospitalized adult, which of the following actions would the nurse take?

• A. Formulate a nursing diagnosis of impaired gas exchange
• B. Record in the medical record the distance a client ambulates in the hall
• C. Write individualized nursing orders in the care plan
• D. Compare client responses to the desired outcomes for pain relief

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the implementation phase of the nursing process, the nurse is responsible for carrying out or delegating nursing interventions and documenting nursing activities and client responses in the medical records. Option A involves diagnosing, which is part of the nursing process's earlier phases. Option C pertains to planning, which precedes implementation. Option D relates to evaluation, which comes after the implementation phase.

4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a dry heat application?

• A. Dry heat is more likely to cause burns than moist heat
• B. Dry heat does not penetrate deeply into the tissues
• C. Dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly
• D. Dry heat can quickly cause skin breakdown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly. When comparing dry and moist heat applications, dry heat is less likely to cause burns and skin breakdown. However, one of the disadvantages of dry heat is that it does not penetrate deeply into the tissues and may lead to faster drying out of the skin. This can have negative effects on skin integrity and overall comfort during therapy. Choice A is incorrect because dry heat is less likely to cause burns than moist heat. Choice B is incorrect as dry heat may not penetrate deeply into tissues. Choice D is incorrect as dry heat is less likely to cause skin breakdown compared to moist heat.

5. The Sims' position is MOST similar to the ________ position.

• A. prone
• B. lateral
• C. supine
• D. Fowler's

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'lateral.' The Sims' position is characterized by the patient lying on their side with the upper knee flexed and the upper arm positioned in front of the body. This is similar to the lateral position where the patient is also lying on their side. The prone position (choice A) is when the patient lies face down, the supine position (choice C) is when the patient lies face up, and Fowler's position (choice D) is a seated position with the head of the bed elevated at a 45-90 degree angle. Therefore, the lateral position is the most similar to the Sims' position as both involve the patient lying on their side.

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