Nursing Elites

1. A patient is diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which of the following blood pressures would you expect to see in this patient prior to taking medications for the condition?

• A. 142/92
• B. 118/72
• C. 120/80
• D. 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before starting medications for essential hypertension, a patient would typically present with a blood pressure reading equal to or greater than 140/90. This indicates high blood pressure and is characteristic of essential hypertension. Choice A, 142/92, falls within this range, making it the correct answer. Choices B (118/72), C (120/80), and D (138/88) all have blood pressure readings that are within the normal range and would not typically be expected in a patient diagnosed with essential hypertension. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the elevated blood pressure levels seen in essential hypertension.

2. Which of the following situations indicates the need to file an incident report?

• A. The neon sign directing parking for visitors has burned out
• B. A nurse must send a syringe pump to maintenance for annual service
• C. A client's blood pressure dropped to 90/55 after receiving a dose of morphine
• D. A client's spouse becomes angry and is asked to leave the premises

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An incident report is necessary for documenting unexpected events that occur in a healthcare setting. Situations that warrant filing an incident report include client accidents, medication errors, security problems, or disruptive behaviors that involve clients, families, or visitors. In this scenario, when a client's spouse displays disruptive behavior and is asked to leave the premises, it is essential to document this incident to ensure a record of the event and its resolution. Choices A, B, and C do not involve disruptive behavior or safety concerns that would require an incident report to be filed.

3. The nurse is preparing to assess a hospitalized patient who is experiencing significant shortness of breath. How should the nurse proceed with the assessment?

• A. Have the patient lie down to obtain an accurate cardiac, respiratory, and abdominal assessment.
• B. Obtain a thorough history and physical assessment from the patient's family member.
• C. Immediately perform a complete history and physical assessment to obtain baseline information.
• D. Examine the body areas relevant to the problem and complete the rest of the assessment after the problem has resolved.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a patient experiencing significant shortness of breath, it is crucial to prioritize the evaluation of areas directly related to the problem. Having the patient lie down may exacerbate the breathing difficulty. Therefore, the nurse should focus on examining the body areas pertinent to the issue, such as the respiratory and cardiac systems. Completing the rest of the assessment can be deferred until after addressing the immediate problem. Obtaining a complete history or involving family members should come after addressing the acute issue to ensure the patient's safety and comfort.

4. When is the best time for the nurse to attempt to elicit the Moro reflex during an infant examination?

• A. When the infant is sleeping
• B. At the end of the examination
• C. Before auscultation of the thorax
• D. At about the middle of the examination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is best elicited at the end of the examination because it can cause the infant to cry. This reflex is triggered by a sudden change in position or loud noise, and it involves the infant's arms extending and then coming back together as if embracing. By eliciting this reflex at the end of the examination, the nurse can observe the infant's response and ensure that the examination is completed without unnecessary distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the Moro reflex is typically elicited at the end of the examination to avoid disrupting the assessment process and causing unnecessary discomfort to the infant.

5. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a dry heat application?

• A. Dry heat is more likely to cause burns than moist heat
• B. Dry heat does not penetrate deeply into the tissues
• C. Dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly
• D. Dry heat can quickly cause skin breakdown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly. When comparing dry and moist heat applications, dry heat is less likely to cause burns and skin breakdown. However, one of the disadvantages of dry heat is that it does not penetrate deeply into the tissues and may lead to faster drying out of the skin. This can have negative effects on skin integrity and overall comfort during therapy. Choice A is incorrect because dry heat is less likely to cause burns than moist heat. Choice B is incorrect as dry heat may not penetrate deeply into tissues. Choice D is incorrect as dry heat is less likely to cause skin breakdown compared to moist heat.

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