NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank
1. A patient is diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which of the following blood pressures would you expect to see in this patient prior to taking medications for the condition?
- A. 142/92
- B. 118/72
- C. 120/80
- D. 138/88
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before starting medications for essential hypertension, a patient would typically present with a blood pressure reading equal to or greater than 140/90. This indicates high blood pressure and is characteristic of essential hypertension. Choice A, 142/92, falls within this range, making it the correct answer. Choices B (118/72), C (120/80), and D (138/88) all have blood pressure readings that are within the normal range and would not typically be expected in a patient diagnosed with essential hypertension. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the elevated blood pressure levels seen in essential hypertension.
2. Penny Thornton has had a stroke, or CVA, and is having difficulty eating on her own. Soon, she will be getting some assistive devices for eating meals. Which healthcare worker will be providing Penny with these assistive devices?
- A. A physical therapist
- B. A speech therapist
- C. A social worker
- D. An occupational therapist
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An occupational therapist is the healthcare professional responsible for assessing the needs of individuals, like Penny, regarding assistive devices that aid them in their daily activities. In this case, assistive devices for eating, such as weighted plates and specialized utensils, are crucial for helping Penny regain independence in feeding herself. Physical therapists focus more on mobility and movement, speech therapists on communication and swallowing disorders, and social workers on providing emotional and social support. Therefore, the correct choice is the occupational therapist as they specialize in activities of daily living and promoting independence.
3. A client has died approximately one hour ago. The nurse notes that the client's temperature has decreased in the last hour since their death. Which of the following processes explains this phenomenon?
- A. Rigor mortis
- B. Postmortem decomposition
- C. Algor mortis
- D. Livor mortis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Algor mortis occurs after death when the body's circulation stops, and the client's temperature begins to fall. The client's temperature will drop by approximately 1.8 degrees per hour until it reaches room temperature. During algor mortis, the client's skin gradually loses its elasticity. Rigor mortis refers to the stiffening of the body after death due to chemical changes in the muscles. Postmortem decomposition is the breakdown of tissues after death. Livor mortis is the pooling of blood in the dependent parts of the body, causing a purple-red discoloration.
4. An examiner is using an ophthalmoscope to examine a patient's eyes. The patient has astigmatism and is nearsighted. Which of these techniques by the examiner would indicate that the examination is being correctly performed?
- A. Rotating the lens selector dial to bring the object into focus
- B. Using the large full circle of light when assessing pupils that are not dilated
- C. Rotating the lens selector dial to the black numbers to compensate for astigmatism
- D. Using the grid on the lens aperture dial to visualize the external structures of the eye
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To correctly perform an eye examination using an ophthalmoscope on a patient with astigmatism and nearsightedness, the examiner should rotate the lens selector dial to bring the object into focus. This adjustment helps compensate for nearsightedness or farsightedness but does not correct astigmatism. Rotating the lens selector dial to the black numbers is not an appropriate technique for compensating for astigmatism. Using the grid on the lens aperture dial is primarily for visualizing external structures of the eye, not for addressing refractive errors. The large full circle of light is typically used when assessing dilated pupils, not for examining patients with astigmatism and nearsightedness. Therefore, the correct technique is rotating the lens selector dial to bring the object into focus.
5. A 4-month-old child is at the clinic for a well-baby checkup and immunizations. Which of these actions is most appropriate when the nurse is assessing an infant's vital signs?
- A. The infant's radial pulse should be palpated, and the nurse should notice any fluctuations resulting from activity or exercise.
- B. The nurse should auscultate an apical rate for 1 minute and then assess for any normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia.
- C. The infant's blood pressure should be assessed by using a stethoscope with a large diaphragm piece to hear the soft muffled Korotkoff sounds.
- D. The infant's chest should be observed and the respiratory rate counted for 1 minute; the respiratory pattern may vary significantly.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse auscultates an apical rate, not a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers. The pulse should be counted by listening to the heart for 1 full minute to account for normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia. Children younger than 3 years of age have such small arm vessels; consequently, hearing Korotkoff sounds with a stethoscope is difficult. The nurse should use either an electronic blood pressure device that uses oscillometry or a Doppler ultrasound device to amplify the sounds. An infant's respiratory rate should be assessed by observing the infant's abdomen, not chest, because an infant's respirations are normally more diaphragmatic than thoracic. The nurse should auscultate an apical heart rate, not palpate a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers.
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