Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been taking mood stabilizing medication but is afraid of needles. They ask the nurse what medication would NOT require regular lab testing. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Valproic Acid (Depakote)
• B. Clozapine (Clozaril)
• C. Lithium
• D. Risperidone (Risperdal)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Risperidone (Risperdal) because it is the only medication among the options that does not require regular lab testing. Risperidone is not associated with the need for routine blood draws to monitor medication levels or potential side effects. Choices A, B, and C (Valproic Acid, Clozapine, Lithium) are all known to require frequent lab monitoring due to various reasons such as potential toxicity, therapeutic drug levels, or adverse effects on certain organ functions. Therefore, considering the patient's fear of needles and the desire to avoid frequent blood tests, Risperidone would be the most suitable option.

2. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis?

• A. Weak, nonproductive cough effort
• B. Large amounts of greenish sputum
• C. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute
• D. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Weak, nonproductive cough effort.' A weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively, supporting the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, secretions can obstruct the airway, leading to ineffective clearance. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect ineffective airway clearance. Large amounts of greenish sputum (Choice B) may suggest infection or inflammation but do not specifically indicate ineffective airway clearance. The respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute (Choice C) and a resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% (Choice D) are more indicative of impaired gas exchange or respiratory distress rather than ineffective airway clearance.

3. A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?

• A. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
• B. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques
• C. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
• D. A stabilization of mood and sleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylprednisolone infusion is the first-line treatment during an acute exacerbation of Multiple Sclerosis. It is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse by reducing inflammation in the central nervous system. Choice A, 'A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements,' is incorrect because methylprednisolone primarily targets inflammation and does not directly address muscle spasticity. Choice B, 'A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques,' is incorrect as methylprednisolone is not used to slow the progression of the disease but rather to manage acute exacerbations. Choice D, 'A stabilization of mood and sleep,' is not an expected outcome of methylprednisolone administration for Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation as it primarily targets the inflammatory process associated with the relapse.

4. A 38-year-old patient with cirrhosis has ascites and 4+ edema of the feet and legs. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?

• A. Restrict daily dietary protein intake.
• B. Reposition the patient every 4 hours.
• C. Place the patient on a pressure-relieving mattress.
• D. Perform passive range of motion daily.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the patient on a pressure-relieving mattress is crucial to decrease the risk of skin breakdown, especially with significant edema and ascites. Adequate dietary protein intake is essential in patients with ascites to improve oncotic pressure and prevent malnutrition. Repositioning the patient every 4 hours alone may not be sufficient to prevent skin breakdown, especially in areas prone to pressure ulcers. Performing passive range of motion exercises is important for maintaining joint mobility but does not directly address the risk of skin breakdown associated with prolonged pressure on vulnerable areas.

5. What preparation should be made for a client undergoing a KUB (Kidney, Ureter, Bladder) radiography test?

• A. Client must be NPO before the examination
• B. Enema should be administered before the examination
• C. Medicate the client with furosemide 20 mg IV 30 minutes before the examination
• D. No special orders are necessary for this examination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that no special orders are necessary for a KUB radiography test. It is important to inform the client to remove any clothing, jewelry, or objects that may interfere with the test. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO before this examination. Option B is incorrect as enemas are not routinely administered prior to a KUB radiography test. Option C is incorrect as there is no need to medicate the client with furosemide before this examination.

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