NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A patient asks the nurse why they must have a heparin injection. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Heparin will dissolve clots that you have.
- B. Heparin will reduce the platelets that make your blood clot.
- C. Heparin will work better than warfarin.
- D. Heparin will prevent new clots from developing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Heparin will prevent new clots from developing.' Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent the formation of new blood clots. It does not dissolve existing clots (choice A), reduce platelets (choice B), or necessarily work 'better' than warfarin (choice C) but rather functions differently. The primary action of heparin is to prevent the development of new clots, especially in conditions where clot formation is a concern.
2. A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.4 F (38.6 C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The patient complains of weakness, fatigue, and needs assistance to get out of bed. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign as the highest priority?
- A. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness
- B. Impaired transfer ability related to weakness
- C. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions
- D. Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion.' While all the nursing diagnoses are relevant to the patient's condition, the priority should be given to impaired gas exchange due to the patient's low oxygen saturation level of 88%. This indicates a significant risk of hypoxia for all body tissues unless the gas exchange is improved. Addressing impaired gas exchange is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further complications. Hyperthermia, impaired transfer ability, and ineffective airway clearance are important concerns but addressing gas exchange takes precedence in this scenario.
3. The nurse is caring for a newborn infant after surgical intervention for imperforate anus. The nurse should place the infant in which position in the postoperative period?
- A. Supine with no head elevation
- B. Side-lying with the legs flexed
- C. Side-lying with the legs extended
- D. Supine with the head elevated 30 degrees
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After surgical intervention for imperforate anus, the infant should be placed in a side-lying position with the legs flexed. This position helps reduce edema and pressure on the surgical site, preventing strain and promoting comfort. Placing the infant supine with no head elevation (Choice A) doesn't offer adequate support and may increase pressure on the area. Side-lying with the legs extended (Choice C) doesn't help reduce edema and pressure effectively. Placing the infant supine with the head elevated 30 degrees (Choice D) isn't recommended as it may not provide adequate support and comfort needed for recovery.
4. The nurse reviews the record of a child who is suspected to have glomerulonephritis. Which statement by the child's parent should the nurse expect that is associated with this diagnosis?
- A. ''His pediatrician said his kidneys are working well.''
- B. ''I noticed his urine was the color of cola lately.''
- C. ''I'm so glad they didn't find any protein in his urine.''
- D. ''The nurse who admitted my child said his blood pressure was low.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Glomerulonephritis refers to a group of kidney disorders characterized by inflammatory injury in the glomerulus. Gross hematuria, resulting in dark, smoky, cola-colored, or brown-colored urine, is a classic symptom of glomerulonephritis. Blood urea nitrogen levels and serum creatinine levels may be elevated, indicating that kidney function is compromised. A mild to moderate elevation in protein in the urine is associated with glomerulonephritis. Hypertension is also common because of fluid volume overload secondary to the kidneys not working properly. Therefore, the parent's statement about noticing cola-colored urine aligns with the expected symptom in glomerulonephritis. The other options are less indicative of glomerulonephritis: choice A indicates normal kidney function, choice C mentions absence of protein in the urine (which is not expected in glomerulonephritis), and choice D talks about low blood pressure (hypertension is more common in glomerulonephritis).
5. When is cleft palate repair usually performed in children?
- A. A cleft palate cannot be repaired in children.
- B. Repair is usually performed by age 8 weeks.
- C. Repair is usually performed by 2 months of age.
- D. Repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cleft palate repair timing is individualized based on the severity of the deformity and the child's size. Typically, cleft palate repair is performed between 6 months and 2 years of age. This age range allows for optimal outcomes and is often done before 12 months to promote normal speech development. Early closure of the cleft palate helps to facilitate speech development. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because a cleft palate can be repaired in children, and repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years of age, not at 8 weeks or 2 months.
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