NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A patient asks the nurse why they must have a heparin injection. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Heparin will dissolve clots that you have.
- B. Heparin will reduce the platelets that make your blood clot.
- C. Heparin will work better than warfarin.
- D. Heparin will prevent new clots from developing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Heparin will prevent new clots from developing.' Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent the formation of new blood clots. It does not dissolve existing clots (choice A), reduce platelets (choice B), or necessarily work 'better' than warfarin (choice C) but rather functions differently. The primary action of heparin is to prevent the development of new clots, especially in conditions where clot formation is a concern.
2. A client asks the nurse about including her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. Which of the following is an appropriate initial statement by the nurse?
- A. Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.
- B. Tell each child what he can do to help with the baby.
- C. Suggest that your husband spend more time with the boys.
- D. Ask the children what they would like to do for the newborn.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to guide the client on the initial steps in involving her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. The most appropriate response is to 'Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.' In an expanded family, parents should prioritize reassuring older children that they are loved and as important as the newborn. This response acknowledges the importance of ensuring the well-being and emotional adjustment of the older siblings during the transition period. Choices B, C, and D are less appropriate as they do not directly address the emotional needs and adjustment of the older children during this significant family change.
3. A patient has just been admitted with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis. Which order should the nurse implement first?
- A. Performing a chest x-ray via stretcher
- B. Obtaining blood cultures from two sites
- C. Administering Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 400 mg IV
- D. Inserting an Acetaminophen (Tylenol) rectal suppository
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a patient with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis, the priority intervention is to obtain blood cultures from two sites before initiating antibiotic therapy. This is crucial to identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic treatment. Administering antibiotics without obtaining cultures first can interfere with accurate results. Performing a chest x-ray and administering acetaminophen can be done after obtaining blood cultures as they are important but not as urgent as identifying the causative organism in sepsis.
4. The nurse has been assigned to care for a neonate just delivered who has gastroschisis. Which concern should the nurse address in the client's plan of care?
- A. Infection.
- B. Poor body image.
- C. Decreased urinary elimination.
- D. Cracking oral mucous membranes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a neonate with gastroschisis, the bowel herniates through a defect in the abdominal wall without a covering membrane, which puts the neonate at high risk of infection. Immediate surgical repair is necessary due to the vulnerability of the exposed bowel to infection. Therefore, the most critical concern for the nurse to address in the plan of care of a neonate with gastroschisis is preventing infection. Poor body image is not a priority in neonatal care as neonates do not have body image concerns. Decreased urinary elimination is not typically a direct consequence of gastroschisis as it primarily affects the gastrointestinal system, not the genitourinary system. Cracking oral mucous membranes are not relevant to gastroschisis as it involves the lower gastrointestinal system, not the oral cavity.
5. When assessing the respiratory system of an older patient, which finding indicates that the nurse should take immediate action?
- A. Weak cough effort
- B. Barrel-shaped chest
- C. Dry mucous membranes
- D. Bilateral crackles at lung bases
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bilateral crackles at lung bases indicate a potential acute issue like heart failure. Immediate action is necessary in this situation. The nurse should conduct further assessments such as oxygen saturation and inform the healthcare provider promptly. A barrel-shaped chest and hyperresonance to percussion are typical signs of aging and do not require immediate action. A weak cough effort is common in older patients due to age-related changes, and dry mucous membranes are also expected in older individuals. While these findings may warrant further evaluation, they do not demand immediate action like bilateral crackles at lung bases.
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