NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A patient asks the nurse why they must have a heparin injection. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Heparin will dissolve clots that you have.
- B. Heparin will reduce the platelets that make your blood clot.
- C. Heparin will work better than warfarin.
- D. Heparin will prevent new clots from developing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Heparin will prevent new clots from developing.' Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent the formation of new blood clots. It does not dissolve existing clots (choice A), reduce platelets (choice B), or necessarily work 'better' than warfarin (choice C) but rather functions differently. The primary action of heparin is to prevent the development of new clots, especially in conditions where clot formation is a concern.
2. The healthcare provider is educating a parent about side effects of routine immunizations. Which of the following must be reported immediately?
- A. Irritability
- B. Slight edema at the injection site
- C. Local tenderness
- D. Temperature of 102.5?F
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A temperature of 102.5�F or higher following immunization is considered an adverse reaction and should be reported immediately. This could indicate a more serious systemic response to the vaccine. Irritability, slight edema at the injection site, and local tenderness are common, mild side effects of routine immunizations and do not typically require immediate reporting. Other reactions that should be reported immediately include excessive crying for more than 3 hours, seizure activity, and the presence of tender, swollen, or reddened areas at the injection site.
3. Which entry in the medical record best meets the requirement for problem-oriented charting?
- A. "A: Pacing and muttering to self. P: Sensory perceptual alteration, related to internal auditory stimulation. I: Given fluphenazine (Prolixin) 2.5 mg at 0900, and went to room to lie down. E: Calmer by 0930. Returned to lounge to watch TV."?
- B. "S: States, 'I feel like I'm ready to blow up.' O: Pacing hall, mumbling to self. A: Auditory hallucinations. P: Offer haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg . I: (Haldol) 2 mg at 0900. E: Returned to lounge at 0930 and quietly watched TV."?
- C. "Agitated behavior. D: Patient muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. A: Given haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg and went to room to lie down. E: Patient calmer. Returned to lounge to watch TV."?
- D. "Pacing hall and muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg administered at 0900 with calming effect in 30 minutes. Stated, 'I'm no longer bothered by the voices.'"?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Problem-oriented documentation uses the first letter of key words to organize data: S for subjective data, O for objective data, A for assessment, P for plan, I for intervention, and E for evaluation. The correct answer demonstrates problem-oriented charting by following this structure. Choice A, C, and D do not follow the problem-oriented charting format and instead offer examples of different documentation styles such as PIE charting, focus documentation, and narrative documentation, respectively. Therefore, choice B is the best example of problem-oriented charting among the options provided.
4. What action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder?
- A. Decrease the patient's evening fluid intake.
- B. Teach the patient how to use the Cred method.
- C. Suggest the use of adult incontinence briefs for nighttime only.
- D. Assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis experiencing urinary retention due to a flaccid bladder, teaching the Cred method is the appropriate action. The Cred method involves applying manual pressure over the bladder to aid in bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake is not the correct approach as it will not address the underlying issue of bladder emptying and may lead to dehydration and urinary tract infections. Using adult incontinence briefs only addresses the symptom of incontinence without addressing the bladder emptying problem. Assisting the patient to the commode every 2 hours does not actively address the issue of improving bladder emptying as effectively as teaching the Cred method.
5. A patient is being discharged from the med-surgical unit. The patient has a history of gastritis. The nurse questions the patient on their usual routine at home. Which of these statements would alert the nurse that additional teaching is required?
- A. I avoid NSAIDs. I only take a daily aspirin for my heart health.
- B. I always avoid eating hot and spicy foods.
- C. I will continue taking my antacids with or immediately after meals.
- D. I will only drink coffee once a week, if even that often.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I avoid NSAIDs. I only take a daily aspirin for my heart health.' Aspirin is classified as an NSAID and can exacerbate existing stomach problems, such as gastritis. Therefore, patients with gastritis should avoid aspirin just like any other NSAID. Choice B, 'I always avoid eating hot and spicy foods,' is a good practice for a patient with gastritis. Choice C, 'I will continue taking my antacids with or immediately after meals,' indicates understanding of the correct timing for antacid use. Choice D, 'I will only drink coffee once a week, if even that often,' shows a suitable limitation of coffee intake, which is beneficial for patients with gastritis.
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