Nursing Elites

1. A patient asks the nurse why they must have a heparin injection. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Heparin will dissolve clots that you have.
• B. Heparin will reduce the platelets that make your blood clot.
• C. Heparin will work better than warfarin.
• D. Heparin will prevent new clots from developing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Heparin will prevent new clots from developing.' Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent the formation of new blood clots. It does not dissolve existing clots (choice A), reduce platelets (choice B), or necessarily work 'better' than warfarin (choice C) but rather functions differently. The primary action of heparin is to prevent the development of new clots, especially in conditions where clot formation is a concern.

2. When auscultating the patient's lungs during a shift assessment on a patient admitted in the early phase of heart failure, which finding would the nurse most likely hear?

• A. Continuous rumbling, snoring, or rattling sounds mainly on expiration
• B. Continuous high-pitched musical sounds on inspiration and expiration
• C. Discontinuous, high-pitched sounds of short duration heard on inspiration
• D. A series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds during inspiration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the early phase of heart failure, fine crackles are likely to be heard upon auscultation of the lungs. Fine crackles are characterized as discontinuous, high-pitched sounds of short duration heard on inspiration. Rhonchi are continuous rumbling, snoring, or rattling sounds mainly on expiration, which are often associated with airway secretions. Coarse crackles are a series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds during inspiration, typically indicating fluid in the alveoli. Wheezes are continuous high-pitched musical sounds on inspiration and expiration, commonly heard in conditions like asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Therefore, the correct choice is C, as it describes the expected lung sounds in a patient with early heart failure.

3. Which of the following is TRUE about shock?

• A. A patient with severe shock does not always have an abnormally low blood pressure.
• B. Confusion and deteriorating mentation are indicative of hypotensive shock.
• C. Patients with compensated shock may not be able to maintain a normal blood pressure.
• D. A normal blood pressure does not imply that the patient is stable.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and deteriorating mentation are indeed indicative of hypotensive shock. It is important to note that a patient with hypotensive shock will likely exhibit deteriorating mental status. Choice A is incorrect because a patient in severe shock may not always have an abnormally low blood pressure, making it an unreliable indicator of shock severity. Choice C is incorrect because patients with compensated shock may present with normal blood pressure but still have inadequate tissue perfusion. Choice D is incorrect because a normal blood pressure does not guarantee the patient's stability, especially in cases of shock where tissue perfusion may be compromised despite normal blood pressure readings.

4. A 3-year-old child was brought to the pediatric clinic after the sudden onset of findings that include irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Prepare the child for an X-ray of the upper airways
• B. Examine the child's throat
• C. Collect a sputum specimen
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the child's status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct initial action is to notify the healthcare provider of the child's status. The presenting symptoms described, such as irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions, are indicative of epiglottitis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Immediate medical attention is crucial in such cases. While preparing for an X-ray or examining the throat may be necessary, the priority is to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention by the healthcare provider. Collecting a sputum specimen is not relevant in this situation and would cause unnecessary delay. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize communication with the healthcare provider to expedite appropriate management and treatment.

5. The client is seven (7) days post total hip replacement. Which statement by the client requires the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. I have bad muscle spasms in my lower leg of the affected extremity.
• B. I just can't 'catch my breath' over the past few minutes and I think I am in grave danger.
• C. I have to use the bedpan to pass my water at least every 1 to 2 hours.
• D. It seems that the pain medication is not working as well today.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: While all statements by the client require attention, the most critical one that demands immediate action is option B. Clients who have undergone hip or knee surgery are at an increased risk of postoperative pulmonary embolism. Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia are hallmark signs of this condition. Without appropriate prophylaxis such as anticoagulant therapy, deep vein thrombosis (DVT) can develop within 7 to 14 days after surgery, potentially leading to pulmonary embolism. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize signs of DVT, which include pain, tenderness, skin discoloration, swelling, or tightness in the affected leg. Signs of pulmonary embolism include sudden onset dyspnea, tachycardia, confusion, and pleuritic chest pain. Option B indicates a potentially life-threatening situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications.

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