NCLEX-RN
Safe and Effective Care Environment NCLEX RN Questions
1. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for reducing the risk of infection during the post-operative period?
- A. Flush the central line with heparin at least every four hours
- B. Administer narcotic analgesics as needed
- C. Remove the urinary catheter as soon as the client is ambulatory
- D. Order a high-protein diet for the client
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate action to reduce the risk of infection during the post-operative period is to remove the urinary catheter as soon as the client is ambulatory. Urinary catheters can serve as a source of bacteria, increasing the risk of infection in the bladder or urethra. By removing the catheter promptly once the client is mobile, the risk of infection can be minimized. Option A, flushing the central line with heparin, is not directly related to reducing urinary tract infections. Option B, administering narcotic analgesics as needed, is important for pain management but does not directly address infection prevention. Option D, ordering a high-protein diet, may be beneficial for wound healing but does not specifically target infection risk reduction in the post-operative period.
2. When printing out an EKG, a nurse notices that the QRS complexes are extremely small. What should be the next step?
- A. Alert the physician immediately as this is a sign of impending cardiac arrest.
- B. Check to see that all leads are attached and rerun the EKG.
- C. Increase the sensitivity control to 20 mm deflection.
- D. Decrease the run speed to 50.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increasing the sensitivity control to 20 mm deflection will double the sensitivity, allowing for better observation of the small QRS complexes. This step is crucial in obtaining a clearer EKG reading. Choice A is incorrect because small QRS complexes do not necessarily indicate impending cardiac arrest; it's more likely a technical issue. Choice B is not the first step to take when small QRS complexes are observed; it's important to adjust the settings first. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing the run speed to 50 is not the appropriate action for this situation; adjusting the sensitivity control is more relevant to improve the visualization of the complexes.
3. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?
- A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
- B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
- C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
- D. Do not use the AED
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.
4. Which of the following scenarios provides an example of a healthcare professional overcoming a barrier to communication?
- A. A healthcare professional uses a visual aid to explain how to conduct a fingerstick glucose test to a patient with visual impairment.
- B. A healthcare professional writes down instructions for a patient who is hearing impaired.
- C. A healthcare professional raises their voice when speaking to a patient who does not speak English.
- D. A healthcare professional uses medical jargon while conversing with a minor.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Overcoming barriers to communication in healthcare involves utilizing methods of communication that are accessible and understandable to the recipient. In the scenario provided, writing down instructions for a patient who is hearing impaired is an effective way to ensure clear communication and overcome the obstacle of hearing impairment. This method allows the patient to visually comprehend the information provided. Choice A is incorrect because using a visual aid for a visually impaired patient, not a hearing-impaired patient, would be more appropriate. Choice C is incorrect as raising one's voice does not address the language barrier effectively and may not enhance understanding. Choice D is incorrect as using complex medical terms with a minor may lead to confusion and hinder effective communication.
5. Which of the following is the most likely cause of constipation in a client?
- A. Postponing bowel movement when the urge to defecate occurs
- B. Intestinal infection
- C. Antibiotic use
- D. Food allergies
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to postpone bowel movement when the urge to defecate occurs. Clients who delay bowel movements by ignoring the urge to defecate or not evacuating promptly, such as in situations where they are not near a bathroom, are at higher risk of developing constipation. This behavior leads to a decrease in bowel movement frequency, slowed intestinal motility, and increased fecal water absorption, resulting in hard, dry stools that are difficult to pass. Intestinal infection (choice B), antibiotic use (choice C), and food allergies (choice D) are less likely to be direct causes of constipation compared to postponing bowel movements.
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