Nursing Elites

1. A teacher brings a 5-year-old child to the school nurse because of a bruise under her eye. When asked about the bruise, the child responds, 'my daddy did it.' What is the nurse's initial action in this situation?

• A. Allow the child to return to class and monitor for future events that are suggestive of abuse
• B. Call the parent and request an explanation for the bruises
• C. Call the police and ask for a warrant for the parent's arrest
• D. Notify the school administrator

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of suspected child abuse, the priority for the school nurse is to notify the school administrator immediately. The school administrator can then collaborate with the nurse to follow established protocols for reporting suspected abuse to the appropriate authorities. All suspicions or allegations of child abuse must be handled with sensitivity and in compliance with state laws and school policies. All other options, such as allowing the child to return to class without further action, directly contacting the parent, or involving the police without proper investigation, could potentially compromise the safety and well-being of the child and may not adhere to legal requirements for reporting suspected abuse.

2. A writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially, the nurse should plan this for a manic client:

• A. Set realistic limits to the client's behavior
• B. Repeat verbal instructions as often as needed
• C. Allow the client to express feelings to relieve tension
• D. Assign a staff member to be with the client at all times to help maintain control

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a manic client who is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive, setting realistic limits to the client's behavior is essential to ensure safety as manic clients may engage in injurious activities. A quiet environment and consistent, firm limits help to maintain control. While repeating verbal instructions may be necessary due to distractibility, it is not the priority compared to setting limits for safety. Allowing the client to express feelings is important, but only non-destructive methods of expression should be permitted. Assigning a staff member to be with the client at all times is not a realistic approach as it may not always be feasible or necessary for managing manic behavior effectively.

3. A client is being monitored for decreased tissue perfusion and increased risk of skin breakdown. Which measure best improves tissue perfusion in this client?

• A. Massaging the reddened areas
• B. Performing range of motion exercises
• C. Administering antithrombotics as ordered
• D. Feeding the client a high-carbohydrate diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client at risk of impaired skin integrity due to decreased tissue perfusion, improving mobility is crucial to enhance tissue perfusion and prevent skin breakdown. Range of motion exercises are beneficial to increase circulation and prevent complications. Massaging reddened areas may further damage fragile skin. Administering antithrombotics may be necessary for specific conditions but does not directly address tissue perfusion. Feeding a high-carbohydrate diet does not directly improve tissue perfusion in this context.

4. A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?

• A. A fever that spikes and then lowers without returning to normal
• B. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 2 days, followed by fever again
• C. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 12 hours, followed by fever again
• D. A persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.

5. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom
• B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom
• C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom
• D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct medication to address the symptom described, where the client is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others, is Risperidone (Risperdal). Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to manage positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms can include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Haloperidol (Haldol) and Clozapine (Clozaril) are typically used for addressing negative symptoms, such as lack of motivation or social withdrawal. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders and seizures, not for addressing symptoms of schizophrenia.

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