NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A teacher brings a 5-year-old child to the school nurse because of a bruise under her eye. When asked about the bruise, the child responds, 'my daddy did it.' What is the nurse's initial action in this situation?
- A. Allow the child to return to class and monitor for future events that are suggestive of abuse
- B. Call the parent and request an explanation for the bruises
- C. Call the police and ask for a warrant for the parent's arrest
- D. Notify the school administrator
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cases of suspected child abuse, the priority for the school nurse is to notify the school administrator immediately. The school administrator can then collaborate with the nurse to follow established protocols for reporting suspected abuse to the appropriate authorities. All suspicions or allegations of child abuse must be handled with sensitivity and in compliance with state laws and school policies. All other options, such as allowing the child to return to class without further action, directly contacting the parent, or involving the police without proper investigation, could potentially compromise the safety and well-being of the child and may not adhere to legal requirements for reporting suspected abuse.
2. A 31-year-old woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate?
- A. MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy
- B. Women with MS frequently have premature labor
- C. MS is associated with an increased risk for congenital defects
- D. Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After pregnancy, women with MS are at higher risk for exacerbation of symptoms due to the postpartum period. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants born to mothers with MS. Symptoms of MS may actually improve during pregnancy, likely due to hormonal changes. MS does not significantly impact the onset of labor. Therefore, the correct response is that MS symptoms may worsen after pregnancy, making option A the accurate answer. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the risks associated with pregnancy in individuals with MS.
3. A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)?
- A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa.
- B. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward.
- C. There is low-grade fever.
- D. The lesions have a "teardrop-on-a-rose-petal"? appearance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The presence of small blue-white spots on the oral mucosa, known as Koplik's spots, is characteristic of measles (rubeola) infection. These spots typically appear on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molars, 1-2 days before the rash onset, and last until 2 days after the rash appears. While Koplik's spots are pathognomonic for measles, their absence does not rule out the diagnosis. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the rash pattern, presence of low-grade fever, and characteristic appearance of lesions are not specific indicators of measles infection.
4. What is the expected date of delivery for your pregnant client when her last menstrual period was on 10/20/2016
- A. 7/7/2017
- B. 8/7/2017
- C. 6/7/2017
- D. 8/1/2017
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The expected date of delivery is calculated using Nagle's rule which is: The first day of last menstrual period - 3 months + 7 days = the estimated date of delivery
5. A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?
- A. 5 mm/hr
- B. 12 mm/hr
- C. 28 mm/hr
- D. 40 mm/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.
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