Nursing Elites

1. A client has died approximately one hour ago. The nurse notes that the client's temperature has decreased in the last hour since their death. Which of the following processes explains this phenomenon?

• A. Rigor mortis
• B. Postmortem decomposition
• C. Algor mortis
• D. Livor mortis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Algor mortis occurs after death when the body's circulation stops, and the client's temperature begins to fall. The client's temperature will drop by approximately 1.8 degrees per hour until it reaches room temperature. During algor mortis, the client's skin gradually loses its elasticity. Rigor mortis refers to the stiffening of the body after death due to chemical changes in the muscles. Postmortem decomposition is the breakdown of tissues after death. Livor mortis is the pooling of blood in the dependent parts of the body, causing a purple-red discoloration.

2. A patient states, "I'm not worth anything. I have negative thoughts about myself. I feel anxious and shaky all the time. Sometimes I feel so sad that I want to go to sleep and never wake up."? Which nursing intervention should have the highest priority?

• A. Self-esteem-building activities
• B. Anxiety self-control measures
• C. Sleep enhancement activities
• D. Suicide precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention in this scenario should be suicide precautions. The patient's statement indicates suicidal ideation, which poses an immediate risk to their safety. By implementing suicide precautions, the nurse can ensure constant monitoring and intervention to prevent any self-harm. While addressing self-esteem, anxiety, and sleep issues are essential, ensuring the patient's safety by prioritizing suicide precautions is crucial. Self-esteem-building activities, anxiety self-control measures, and sleep enhancement activities are important interventions but should follow the immediate concern of preventing harm from suicidal thoughts.

3. You are working the 8 am to 4 pm shift. You begin to vomit at 3 pm and you do not think that you are able to continue working. You decide to immediately go home without notifying your RN supervisor. You have ________________.

• A. enough sick time, so this is not a problem.
• B. finished all your work, so this is not a problem.
• C. seriously abandoned the patients.
• D. seriously abused and neglected the patients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patient abandonment is a serious violation that can lead to disciplinary action and immediate termination of employment. It is defined as leaving patients without proper consent from the supervisor. In this scenario, leaving work without notifying the RN supervisor and potentially leaving patients unattended is considered patient abandonment, as it compromises patient safety and care. Choices A and B are incorrect because having sick time or finishing work does not justify leaving without proper protocol. Choice D is incorrect as the scenario does not indicate abuse or neglect towards the patients.

4. What is the anatomic structure located in the middle of the heart that separates the right and left ventricles?

• A. Septum
• B. Sputum
• C. Separator
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the septum. The septum is a structure located in the middle of the heart that separates the right and left ventricles. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the separation between the two ventricles to ensure efficient blood flow. The other choices, 'Sputum' and 'Separator,' are incorrect as they do not refer to the anatomic structure in the heart that serves this specific function. 'Sputum' is a term used to describe phlegm or mucus, not an anatomical structure, and 'Separator' is a generic term that does not specifically identify the cardiac structure mentioned in the question.

5. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
• B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
• C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
• D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.

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