a nurse is caring for a client who died approximately one hour ago the nurse notes that the clients temperature has decreased in the last hour since h
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Prep

1. A client has died approximately one hour ago. The nurse notes that the client's temperature has decreased in the last hour since their death. Which of the following processes explains this phenomenon?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Algor mortis occurs after death when the body's circulation stops, and the client's temperature begins to fall. The client's temperature will drop by approximately 1.8 degrees per hour until it reaches room temperature. During algor mortis, the client's skin gradually loses its elasticity. Rigor mortis refers to the stiffening of the body after death due to chemical changes in the muscles. Postmortem decomposition is the breakdown of tissues after death. Livor mortis is the pooling of blood in the dependent parts of the body, causing a purple-red discoloration.

2. A client is preparing to administer an enema to a 64-year-old client. Which of the following actions of the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering an enema to a client, the nurse should place the client in the Sims' position for easy access. The correct action is to apply lubricating jelly to the tip of the catheter before insertion to facilitate a smoother procedure. It is essential to instill a maximum of 750 to 1000 cc of fluid for an adult client, not just 30cc. Following administration, the nurse should ask the client to hold the solution for at least 5 minutes to allow for the desired effect of the enema. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate action, as choices A, C, and D are incorrect due to inaccuracies in positioning, enema volume, and retention time.

3. A patient's nursing diagnosis is Insomnia. The desired outcome is: 'Patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31.' On November 1, a review of the sleep data shows the patient sleeps an average of 4 hours nightly and takes a 2-hour afternoon nap. Which evaluation should be documented?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Never demonstrated.' Despite the patient sleeping a total of 6 hours daily, it is not achieved in one uninterrupted session at night as per the desired outcome. The patient's habit of taking a 2-hour afternoon nap also affects the evaluation. Therefore, the outcome should be evaluated as 'Never demonstrated.' Choice A, 'Consistently demonstrated,' is incorrect because the desired outcome of sleeping for a minimum of 5 hours nightly in one session is not met. Choice B, 'Often demonstrated,' is incorrect as the patient's sleep pattern does not consistently align with the desired outcome. Choice C, 'Sometimes demonstrated,' is also incorrect as the patient's sleep pattern does not meet the specific criteria set in the desired outcome.

4. In the Gram Stain procedure, which component acts as the mordant?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Gram Stain procedure, the mordant is Gram's Iodine. The purpose of the mordant is to form a complex with the crystal violet, enhancing its ability to bind to the cell wall. Crystal violet is actually the primary stain used in the Gram Stain procedure to initially color all cells. Methyl alcohol is the decolorizer that removes the crystal violet from certain cell types. Safranin is the counterstain used to stain those cells that did not retain the crystal violet stain after the decolorization step.

5. A registered nurse who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is floated to the emergency department. Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to this RN?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assigning a floated nurse from another unit to a client in the emergency department, the goal is to choose a patient with minimal anticipated immediate complications. In this scenario, the adolescent with terminal cancer who has been on pain medications and presents with pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11 is the most stable option. These assessment findings indicate opioid toxicity, which, while serious, has the least risk of immediate complications compared to the other clients. Choice A involves a middle-aged client experiencing symptoms of possible cardiac issues due to diet pill overdose, which requires urgent intervention. Choice B presents a young adult with concerning symptoms of potential psychosis or substance withdrawal, requiring immediate attention. Choice D involves an elderly client who recently used crack, posing a high-risk situation that requires prompt evaluation and intervention. Therefore, the correct choice is the adolescent with opioid toxicity, as this client has the least immediate risk of complications among the options provided.

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