NCLEX-RN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions
1. A client in labor has an electronic fetal monitor attached to the abdomen, and the nurse notes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction, returning to normal limits only after the contraction is complete. Which type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?
- A. Variable decelerations
- B. Late decelerations
- C. Early decelerations
- D. Accelerations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations refer to a pattern where the baby's heart rate decreases during contractions and does not return to normal until after the contraction ends. This is considered a non-reassuring sign as it indicates potential fetal distress. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, and immediate medical attention is required. Variable decelerations (Choice A) are abrupt, unpredictable decreases in the fetal heart rate, usually associated with cord compression. Early decelerations (Choice C) are usually benign and mirror the contraction pattern. Accelerations (Choice D) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, characterized by an increase in the fetal heart rate.
2. A nursing student is teaching a patient and family about epilepsy prior to the patient's discharge. For which statement should you intervene?
- A. "You should avoid consumption of all forms of alcohol."?
- B. "Wear your medical alert bracelet at all times."?
- C. "Protect your loved one's airway during a seizure."?
- D. "It's important to consult with your physician before taking over-the-counter medications."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is, "It's important to consult with your physician before taking over-the-counter medications."? Patients with epilepsy should not take over-the-counter medications without medical advice due to potential interactions with antiepileptic drugs or triggering seizures. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate statements for a patient with epilepsy, focusing on alcohol avoidance, wearing a medical alert bracelet, and airway protection during a seizure, respectively. Choice D is incorrect because patients with epilepsy need to be cautious about medications due to possible interactions or adverse effects, so consulting with a physician is crucial before taking over-the-counter medications.
3. Elderly patients are more prone to dehydration than younger people because the elderly ___________.
- A. drink more coffee and tea
- B. have more stomach mucus production
- C. have more saliva
- D. have less sense of thirst
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elderly patients are prone to dehydration because they have a lower and diminished sense of thirst. This reduced sensation of thirst makes them less likely to drink an adequate amount of fluids, leading to dehydration. While it is true that elderly individuals may also have changes such as decreased stomach mucus production and saliva production, these factors do not directly contribute to dehydration. Drinking more coffee and tea, as mentioned in choice A, is not a consistent behavior among all elderly individuals and is not a primary reason for their increased risk of dehydration.
4. Which information given by a 70-year-old patient during a health history indicates to the nurse that the patient should be screened for hepatitis C?
- A. The patient had a blood transfusion in 2005
- B. The patient used IV drugs about 20 years ago
- C. The patient frequently eats in fast-food restaurants
- D. The patient traveled to a country with poor sanitation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'The patient used IV drugs about 20 years ago.' Any patient with a history of IV drug use should be tested for hepatitis C due to the increased risk of transmission through sharing needles. Blood transfusions given after 1992, when an antibody test for hepatitis C became available, do not pose a risk for hepatitis C. Hepatitis C is not spread by the oral-fecal route, so contaminated food or traveling to countries with poor sanitation are not direct risk factors for hepatitis C.
5. Mrs. F has been diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following complications is Mrs. F at highest risk of developing?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypermagnesemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The parathyroid glands regulate calcium, vitamin D, and phosphorus in the body. Hyperparathyroidism leads to excessive production of parathyroid hormone, causing the release of calcium from bones into the bloodstream, resulting in elevated blood calcium levels, known as hypercalcemia. This puts individuals at risk of developing complications such as kidney stones, bone pain, osteoporosis, and neuropsychiatric symptoms. The other options, hyponatremia, hypocalcemia, and hypermagnesemia, are not directly associated with hyperparathyroidism. Hyponatremia is low sodium levels in the blood, hypocalcemia is low calcium levels, and hypermagnesemia is high magnesium levels, which are not typically seen in hyperparathyroidism.
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