Nursing Elites

1. A client in labor has an electronic fetal monitor attached to the abdomen, and the nurse notes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction, returning to normal limits only after the contraction is complete. Which type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?

• A. Variable decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Early decelerations
• D. Accelerations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations refer to a pattern where the baby's heart rate decreases during contractions and does not return to normal until after the contraction ends. This is considered a non-reassuring sign as it indicates potential fetal distress. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, and immediate medical attention is required. Variable decelerations (Choice A) are abrupt, unpredictable decreases in the fetal heart rate, usually associated with cord compression. Early decelerations (Choice C) are usually benign and mirror the contraction pattern. Accelerations (Choice D) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, characterized by an increase in the fetal heart rate.

2. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.

3. A client in the emergency room enters the care area to start an IV. He finds a man sitting on the table, hunched over, and attempting to take deep breaths. He states, 'my chest hurts so much!' His wife is sitting on a chair in the corner, crying. Which of the following is the first action of the client?

• A. Bring the IV kit and quickly start an IV
• B. Assess his breathing and provide oxygen, if necessary
• C. Administer medication to control chest pain
• D. Talk with his wife and find out why she is crying

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the above scenario, the first action of the nurse should be to assess the client's airway and breathing. It is crucial to address respiratory status first, as the client appears to be experiencing difficulty breathing. Providing oxygen if necessary can help support oxygenation and alleviate potential respiratory distress. Administering medication for chest pain or starting an IV can come after ensuring adequate oxygenation. Talking with the client's wife, though important for emotional support, is not the priority when the client's respiratory status needs to be assessed and managed promptly.

4. You are on the unit and overhear another nurse talking on the phone to a patient's friend who wants to see her patient who is comatose and on a ventilator. Since you cared for that patient yesterday, you know that the patient's significant other, who is also the designated healthcare surrogate (HCS) and has power of attorney (POA), has expressly stated that he wants this person on the list for restricted visitors. The nurse whispers that she'll call him to visit as soon as the significant other has gone home. What should your first response be?

• A. Inform the significant other
• B. Report the nurse to the nurse manager
• C. Speak with the nurse directly in private
• D. Call the visitor and tell him he can't visit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Speaking with the nurse directly and privately is the most constructive manner in which to handle this situation and advocate for the significant other's wishes. Doing so will open communication with a peer and build the relationship, instead of alienating the other nurse by taking action that does not involve her and will cast her in a negative light with others. It is essential to express your concerns regarding honoring the significant other's requests and rights regarding the limitation of visitors. Option A is incorrect because the significant other is not the one trying to visit, and it is more appropriate to address the nurse directly first. Option B is not the best initial response as it may escalate the situation without giving the nurse a chance to correct the issue. Option D is incorrect as it does not address the issue at its source and may create further conflict without resolving the underlying problem.

5. Which of the following clients is most likely ready to be dismissed from an inpatient care setting to home?

• A. A 65-year old male with urine output of 60cc in the past four hours
• B. A 2-month old female with a temperature of 100.6 rectally
• C. A 38-year old female who transitioned from IV TPN to full liquids six hours ago
• D. A 4-year old male with an oxygen saturation of 96% on room air

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients must meet a certain amount of set criteria before they will be discharged from a healthcare facility. Although guidelines may vary between locations, most healthcare facilities expect clients to have adequate oxygenation, nutrition, and elimination; and be free from fever, vomiting, and significant pain

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