Nursing Elites

1. A client in labor has an electronic fetal monitor attached to the abdomen, and the nurse notes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction, returning to normal limits only after the contraction is complete. Which type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?

• A. Variable decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Early decelerations
• D. Accelerations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations refer to a pattern where the baby's heart rate decreases during contractions and does not return to normal until after the contraction ends. This is considered a non-reassuring sign as it indicates potential fetal distress. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, and immediate medical attention is required. Variable decelerations (Choice A) are abrupt, unpredictable decreases in the fetal heart rate, usually associated with cord compression. Early decelerations (Choice C) are usually benign and mirror the contraction pattern. Accelerations (Choice D) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, characterized by an increase in the fetal heart rate.

2. A patient in the cardiac unit is concerned about the risk factors associated with atherosclerosis. Which of the following are hereditary risk factors for developing atherosclerosis?

• A. Family history of heart disease
• B. Overweight
• C. Smoking
• D. Age

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A family history of heart disease is an inherited risk factor for developing atherosclerosis. This factor is not modifiable through lifestyle changes. Studies have shown that having a first-degree relative with heart disease significantly increases the individual's risk of developing atherosclerosis. Overweight, smoking, and age are not hereditary risk factors for atherosclerosis. Overweight and smoking are lifestyle-related risk factors, while age is a non-modifiable risk factor that increases with time but is not directly inherited.

3. At the beginning of the shift, a nurse receives report for her daily assignment. Which of the following situations should the nurse give first priority?

• A. A diabetic client with a blood glucose level of 195 mg/dL
• B. A family member of an elderly client who has questions
• C. A client with COPD with an oxygen saturation of 84%
• D. A client who requires assistance to use the bathroom

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing the needs of clients, the nurse must begin with the unstable client or manage conditions that affect airway, breathing, or circulation first. The client with COPD has a condition that affects breathing and is exhibiting decreased oxygen saturation levels; therefore, this client should be the first priority. Option A, the diabetic client with a blood glucose level of 195 mg/dL, does not present an immediate threat to airway, breathing, or circulation. Option B, addressing questions from a family member, is important but can be addressed after addressing critical patient needs. Option D, assisting a client to use the bathroom, is a routine task that can be prioritized after addressing urgent medical needs.

4. All hospitals and nursing homes are mandated to have the goal of a restraint-free environment. The best way to achieve this goal is to ________________.

• A. ban the use of all restraints under all circumstances
• B. limit restraints to only those situations when falls cannot be prevented
• C. keep all bedside rails up for all patients during nighttime hours
• D. use non-skid socks and sheets to prevent falls from chairs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: All hospitals and nursing homes are mandated by JCAHO and state departments of health to have the goal of a restraint-free environment. This does not mean that no restraints can ever be used under any circumstances. The goal is to minimize the use of restraints and prioritize other preventive measures. Restraining a patient should only be considered when all other preventive strategies have failed, and the patient is at risk of harm. Therefore, the best approach is to limit the use of restraints to situations where falls cannot be prevented, ensuring that restraints are used as a last resort to maintain patient safety. Choices C and D are not ideal solutions as they do not address the appropriate use of restraints in a restraint-free environment.

5. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?

• A. Air embolism.
• B. Cerebral hemorrhage.
• C. Expansion of the clot.
• D. Resolution of the clot.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.

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