Nursing Elites

1. A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic for her prenatal visit. The nurse gathers data about her obstetric history, which includes 3-year-old twins at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation. How would the nurse accurately document this information?

• A. G4 T1 P0 A1 L2
• B. G3 T1 P0 A1 L2
• C. G3 T0 P1 A1 L2
• D. G4 T0 P1 A1 L2

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is G4 T1 P0 A1 L2. This documentation accurately represents the woman's obstetric history. G4: She is currently pregnant (1), has twins (1), and had a miscarriage (1), totaling four pregnancies. T1: She has had one pregnancy that resulted in the birth of her twins at term. P0: She has not had any preterm births. A1: She had one miscarriage at 12 weeks gestation. L2: She has two living children (the twins). Therefore, the correct documentation reflects all aspects of her obstetric history as provided.

2. A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?

• A. 5 mm/hr
• B. 12 mm/hr
• C. 28 mm/hr
• D. 40 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.

3. A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?

• A. Do nothing; this is a normal response
• B. Strip the tubing to remove any clots
• C. Place a clamp on the tube near the client's chest
• D. Remove the collection chamber and connect the tubing to a new device

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.

4. A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?

• A. Aripiprazole (Abilify)
• B. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta)
• C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
• D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.

5. Jack is a 2-month-old with a diagnosis of spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) type I. He has been admitted to the hospital for progressive respiratory difficulty. His parents have been informed that if he is not placed on ventilatory support, he will continue to decompensate and die of respiratory failure. Jack's physician discusses the poor prognosis of Jack's condition, and tells the parents that he will not be able to be removed from ventilatory support once it is initiated, due to his progressive neurological disease. After much discussion, the parents have decided to decline ventilatory support, agree to a do not resuscitate (DNR) order, and request hospice care for Jack. Another parent heard them discussing Jack's situation in the waiting room and says she could never do that to her baby. What is the most appropriate response to this parent?

• A. You never know what you'll do until you're in that situation.
• B. I can't discuss another patient's situation.
• C. They have been through too much already.
• D. You can contact administration with your concerns.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In healthcare settings, privacy regulations prevent professionals from discussing patient situations with individuals not involved in that patient's care. Maintaining patient confidentiality is crucial to protect sensitive information. In this scenario, sharing details about Jack's situation with the parent who overheard the conversation would breach confidentiality. It is important to handle such situations delicately, especially in emotional environments like intensive care unit waiting rooms. While empathy and support are essential, it is equally crucial to respect patient privacy and confidentiality. Therefore, responding with 'I can't discuss another patient's situation' is the most appropriate and professional response in this context.

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