NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. As a nursing supervisor in a long-term care facility, you prioritize strict infection control prevention measures due to the understanding that the normal aging process weakens the body's defenses. Which theory of aging supports the necessity of strict infection control prevention measures?
- A. The Programmed Longevity Theory
- B. The Immunological Theory of Aging
- C. The Endocrine Theory
- D. The Rate of Living Theory
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The theory of aging that aligns with the need for strict infection control prevention measures is the Immunological Theory of Aging. This theory posits that aging leads to a decline in the body's immune defenses and a reduced ability of antibodies to protect against infections. The other theories do not directly address the impact of aging on the immune system. The Programmed Longevity Theory focuses on genetic changes affecting aging, the Endocrine Theory emphasizes hormonal changes, and the Rate of Living Theory relates longevity to the rate of oxygen metabolism.
2. A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?
- A. Do nothing; this is a normal response
- B. Strip the tubing to remove any clots
- C. Place a clamp on the tube near the client's chest
- D. Remove the collection chamber and connect the tubing to a new device
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.
3. Which of the following conditions may warrant a serum creatinine level?
- A. Rhabdomyolysis
- B. Digitalis toxicity
- C. Glomerulonephritis
- D. All answers are correct
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum creatinine level may be warranted in conditions that can affect renal function or cause muscle breakdown. Rhabdomyolysis, characterized by muscle injury and breakdown, can lead to elevated creatinine levels due to the release of creatinine from muscles. Digitalis toxicity can impair renal function, leading to a need for monitoring creatinine levels. Glomerulonephritis, an inflammatory condition affecting the kidney's filtering units, can also impact renal function and require assessment of creatinine levels. Therefore, all the provided conditions may warrant a serum creatinine level to assess renal function and muscle breakdown.
4. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?
- A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
- B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
- C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
- D. Dopamine system stabilizers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.
5. Jaime has a diagnosis of schizophrenia with negative symptoms. In planning care for the client, Nurse Brienne would anticipate a problem with:
- A. Auditory hallucinations
- B. Bizarre behaviors
- C. Ideas of reference
- D. Motivation for activities
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as Jaime, a common problem is avolition, which is the lack of motivation for activities. These 'negative' symptoms are characterized by inexpressive faces, blank looks, monotone speech, few gestures, and a seeming lack of interest in the world. Patients may also experience an inability to feel pleasure or act spontaneously. It is crucial to differentiate between the lack of expression and lack of feeling, as well as between lack of will and lack of activity. Auditory hallucinations (choice A) are positive symptoms, not typically associated with negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Bizarre behaviors (choice B) are more aligned with positive symptoms like disorganized behavior. Ideas of reference (choice C) involve incorrectly interpreting casual incidents and external events as having direct reference to oneself, which is not directly related to motivation for activities seen in negative symptoms.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access