NCLEX NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. Which method is used to verify the placement of a newly inserted central venous access device (CVAD)?
- A. Chest x-ray
- B. Flushing the line with heparin
- C. Withdrawing blood to ensure patency
- D. Chest fluoroscopy
Correct answer: A: Chest x-ray
Rationale: The correct method to verify the placement of a newly inserted central venous access device (CVAD) is a chest x-ray. This is crucial to detect any potential complications such as pneumothorax, which can occur during subclavian vein catheter insertion. Symptoms of pneumothorax may include shortness of breath and anxiety. Flushing the line with heparin is not used for placement verification, but rather for maintaining patency after verification. Withdrawing blood to ensure patency is done after placement is confirmed, not for initial verification. Chest fluoroscopy may be used during the insertion process but is not typically employed for placement verification.
2. To detect possible complications in a patient with severe cirrhosis who has bleeding esophageal varices, it is most important for the nurse to monitor
- A. bilirubin levels.
- B. ammonia levels.
- C. potassium levels.
- D. prothrombin time.
Correct answer: ammonia levels.
Rationale: In a patient with severe cirrhosis and bleeding esophageal varices, monitoring ammonia levels is crucial. Severe liver dysfunction impairs the metabolism of protein in the GI tract, leading to increased ammonia levels. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Monitoring bilirubin levels is important for assessing liver function and jaundice but may not directly reflect the risk of complications from bleeding esophageal varices. Potassium levels are important but not the most critical in this scenario. Prothrombin time is essential for evaluating coagulation status but does not directly relate to the risk of complications from bleeding esophageal varices in this patient.
3. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 20-year-old marathon runner and documents the following vital signs: temperature—36°C; pulse—48 beats per minute; respirations—14 breaths per minute; blood pressure—104/68 mm Hg. Which statement is true concerning these results?
- A. The patient is experiencing bradycardia.
- B. These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
- C. The patient’s pulse rate is not normal—no action is required.
- D. The patient's next clinic visit should occur as scheduled.
Correct answer: These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.' A pulse rate of 48 beats per minute is considered bradycardia in adults, but it is not a concern in well-trained athletes like marathon runners. Bradycardia is a normal physiological response to aerobic conditioning. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is defined as a pulse rate above 100 beats per minute, which is not the case here. The low pulse rate in this scenario is a reflection of the athlete's cardiovascular fitness. Therefore, there is no need to notify the physician or schedule a follow-up visit based on these findings.
4. A couple asks the nurse about risks of several birth control methods. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Norplant is safe and can be easily removed.
- B. Oral contraceptives should not be used by smokers.
- C. Depo-Provera is convenient with few side effects.
- D. The IUD provides protection against pregnancy and infection.
Correct answer: Oral contraceptives should not be used by smokers.
Rationale: The correct answer is that oral contraceptives should not be used by smokers. The use of oral contraceptives in a woman who smokes increases the risk of cardiovascular problems, such as thromboembolic disorders. This is due to the combined effect of smoking and hormonal contraceptives. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific risk associated with smoking and oral contraceptives. Norplant's safety and ease of removal, Depo-Provera's convenience with few side effects, and the IUD's protection against pregnancy and infection are important points but not directly related to the increased risks for smokers using oral contraceptives.
5. Which behavior best indicates that the client has received adequate preparation for the scheduled diagnostic studies?
- A. Asks for the tests to be explained again
- B. Checks the appointment card multiple times
- C. Arrives early and waits quietly to be called for the tests
- D. Paces back and forth in the hallway on the morning of the tests
Correct answer: Arrives early and waits quietly to be called for the tests
Rationale: The correct answer is arriving early and waiting quietly to be called for the tests. This behavior indicates that the client is prepared, as early arrival suggests an expected degree of anxiety and the quiet waiting indicates a lower level of anxiety and adequate preparation. Asking for the tests to be explained again may signal inadequate explanation, nervousness, or poor memory. Checking the appointment card repeatedly or pacing up and down the hallway indicate a high level of anxiety, which could be associated with inadequate teaching. Nurses providing preprocedural teaching should assess for anxiety related to procedures, coping mechanisms, and retention of information post-teaching. If issues are identified, strategies such as paraphrasing information, having a support person present, seeking advice from someone who has undergone the procedure, or visiting the test center beforehand can be utilized.
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