Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is

• A. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery.
• B. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator.
• C. Procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow.
• D. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that involves compressing plaque against the wall of a diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is a minimally invasive procedure performed during a cardiac catheterization to open blockages in the coronary arteries. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery refers to procedures like coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), not PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator is a different intervention used for managing cardiac arrhythmias, not for improving coronary blood flow. A non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart would typically refer to procedures like a cardiac CT scan or an MRI, not PTCA.

2. Which assessment information will be most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider about a patient with acute cholecystitis?

• A. The patient's urine is bright yellow
• B. The patient's stools are tan colored
• C. The patient has increased pain after eating
• D. The patient complains of chronic heartburn

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient's stools are tan colored. Tan or grey stools indicate biliary obstruction, which requires rapid intervention to resolve in a patient with acute cholecystitis. This change in stool color is a critical sign that the healthcare provider needs to be informed about promptly. The other choices are less concerning and may be common symptoms in patients with acute cholecystitis, but tan-colored stools specifically indicate a potential serious complication that warrants immediate attention.

3. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

• A. Slow, deep respirations
• B. Stridor
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Air hunger

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with pulmonary edema following a myocardial infarction, the nurse should expect symptoms such as air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Air hunger refers to the feeling of needing to breathe more deeply or more often. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema can include coughing up blood or bloody froth, orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening with shortness of breath). Slow, deep respirations (Choice A) are not typical in pulmonary edema; these patients often exhibit rapid, shallow breathing due to the difficulty in oxygen exchange. Stridor (Choice B) is a high-pitched breathing sound often associated with upper airway obstruction, not typically seen in pulmonary edema. Bradycardia (Choice C), a slow heart rate, is not a characteristic symptom of pulmonary edema, which is more likely to be associated with tachycardia due to the body's compensatory response to hypoxia and increased workload on the heart.

4. A 49-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) is to begin treatment with glatiramer acetate (Copaxone). Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching?

• A. Recommendation to drink at least 4 L of fluid daily
• B. Need to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery
• C. How to draw up and administer injections of the medication
• D. Use of contraceptive methods other than oral contraceptives

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When initiating treatment with glatiramer acetate (Copaxone), patient education should focus on teaching the patient how to draw up and administer injections of the medication. Copaxone is administered via self-injection, hence understanding the correct technique is crucial for successful treatment. Recommendations regarding fluid intake or the need to avoid driving heavy machinery are not directly related to glatiramer acetate therapy. Additionally, while discussing contraceptive methods may be important, the use of oral contraceptives does not specifically contraindicate the use of glatiramer acetate.

5. The nurse assesses a patient suspected of having meningitis. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of this condition?

• A. A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness
• B. A high WBC count and manic activity
• C. A low WBC count and manic activity
• D. A low WBC count and decreased level of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness.' Meningitis is often caused by an infectious organism, leading to an increase in Intracranial Pressure (ICP), which can result in decreased level of consciousness. While meningitis can trigger an inflammatory response, it typically presents with an elevated white blood cell (WBC) count rather than a low WBC count. Manic activity is not a common clinical manifestation of meningitis; instead, patients may exhibit altered mental status, confusion, or lethargy.

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