Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is

• A. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery.
• B. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator.
• C. Procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow.
• D. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that involves compressing plaque against the wall of a diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is a minimally invasive procedure performed during a cardiac catheterization to open blockages in the coronary arteries. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery refers to procedures like coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), not PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator is a different intervention used for managing cardiac arrhythmias, not for improving coronary blood flow. A non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart would typically refer to procedures like a cardiac CT scan or an MRI, not PTCA.

2. The patient's symptoms, lack of antibodies for hepatitis, and the abrupt onset of symptoms suggest toxic hepatitis, which can be caused by commonly used over-the-counter drugs such as acetaminophen (Tylenol). Travel to a foreign country and a history of IV drug use are risk factors for viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use does not cause the symptoms listed.

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Temperature
• C. Activity level
• D. Albumin level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The low oncotic pressure caused by hypoalbuminemia is a major pathophysiologic factor in the development of edema. In this case, monitoring the albumin level is crucial to assess the patient's fluid balance and potential for edema. While hemoglobin, temperature, and activity level are important parameters to monitor in a patient's assessment, they are not directly associated with the patient's current symptoms of toxic hepatitis and edema development. Therefore, the correct choice is the albumin level.

3. A patient asks the nurse whether he is a good candidate to use a CPAP machine. The nurse reviews the client's history. Which condition would contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine?

• A. The patient is in the late stage of dementia.
• B. The patient has a history of bronchitis.
• C. The patient has had suicidal gestures/attempts in the past.
• D. The patient is on beta-blockers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient is in the late stage of dementia. In late-stage dementia, individuals may have an inability to follow commands and understand instructions independently, which are essential for proper installation and use of a CPAP machine. This makes using a CPAP machine challenging and potentially ineffective for patients in this condition. Choice B, having a history of bronchitis, does not contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. In fact, CPAP therapy can be beneficial for patients with respiratory conditions like bronchitis. Choice C, a history of suicidal gestures/attempts, while concerning for the patient's mental health, does not directly contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. Choice D, being on beta-blockers, is not a contraindication for CPAP machine use. Beta-blockers are commonly used medications for various conditions and do not interfere with the use of a CPAP machine.

4. A patient is admitted and complains of gastric pain, fever, and diarrhea. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Abdominal distention
• B. A bruit near the epigastric area
• C. 3 episodes of vomiting in the last hour
• D. Blood pressure of 160/90

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A bruit near the epigastric area may indicate the presence of an aortic aneurysm, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical attention. Abdominal distention, while concerning, may not be as urgent as a potential aneurysm. Vomiting episodes may suggest underlying issues but do not present an immediate life-threatening situation. A blood pressure of 160/90, though elevated, does not pose the same level of immediate threat as a potential aortic aneurysm.

5. A healthcare professional is putting together a presentation on meningitis. Which of the following microorganisms has not been linked to meningitis in humans?

• A. S. pneumoniae
• B. H. influenzae
• C. N. meningitidis
• D. Cl. difficile

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Cl. difficile. Clostridium difficile (C. diff) is not typically associated with meningitis in humans. This bacterium is known to cause severe diarrhea, usually as a result of antibiotic treatment. S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and N. meningitidis are all known to be causative agents of meningitis in humans. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis, especially in adults. H. influenzae, particularly type b (Hib), used to be a leading cause of meningitis in children before the introduction of the Hib vaccine. N. meningitidis is another significant pathogen responsible for causing meningitis, especially in young adults and adolescents.

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