NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the troponin T value is at 5.3 ng/mL. Which of these interventions, if not already completed, would take priority over the others?
- A. Place the patient in a 90-degree position
- B. Assess whether the patient is taking diuretics
- C. Obtain and attach defibrillator leads
- D. Assess the patient's last ejection fraction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the elevated Troponin T level indicates cardiac damage, possibly due to a myocardial infarction. A Troponin T value of 5.3 ng/mL is significantly elevated (normal levels are below 0.2 ng/mL), suggesting acute cardiac injury. Given the setting of an Emergency Room and the critical nature of the situation, the priority intervention should be to obtain and attach defibrillator leads. Elevated Troponin T levels can indicate a higher risk of arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. Defibrillator leads are essential for monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm and readiness for immediate defibrillation if necessary. Placing the patient in a 90-degree position (Choice A) or assessing diuretic use (Choice B) are not immediate priorities in this critical situation. Additionally, assessing the patient's last ejection fraction (Choice D) is important but not as urgent as preparing for potential life-threatening arrhythmias requiring defibrillation.
2. A 23-year-old has been admitted with acute liver failure. Which assessment data are most important for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider?
- A. Asterixis and lethargy
- B. Jaundiced sclera and skin
- C. Elevated total bilirubin level
- D. Liver 3 cm below costal margin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most critical assessment data for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider in a patient with acute liver failure are asterixis and lethargy. These findings are indicative of grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy, which signals a rapid deterioration in the patient's condition, necessitating early transfer to a transplant center. Jaundiced sclera and skin, elevated total bilirubin level, and a liver 3 cm below the costal margin are all typical findings in hepatic failure but do not indicate an immediate need for a change in the therapeutic plan. Therefore, while these findings are relevant and should be reported, they are not as urgent as asterixis and lethargy in a patient with acute liver failure.
3. To prevent a Valsalva maneuver in a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse would:
- A. Assist the client in using the bedside commode.
- B. Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed.
- C. Administer antidysrhythmics prn as ordered.
- D. Maintain the client on strict bed rest.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering stool softeners daily is crucial to prevent straining during defecation, which can lead to the Valsalva maneuver. Straining can increase intrathoracic pressure, decrease venous return to the heart, and reduce cardiac output, potentially worsening the client's condition. If constipation occurs, the use of laxatives may be necessary to avoid straining. Administering antidysrhythmics on an as-needed basis is not indicated for preventing the Valsalva maneuver; they are used to manage dysrhythmias. Strict bed rest is not necessary and may lead to complications such as deconditioning, DVT, and respiratory issues in the absence of specific medical indications.
4. The mother of a child who had a cleft palate repair 4 days ago is receiving home care instructions. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further instruction?
- A. ''I will use a short nipple on the bottle.''
- B. ''I should avoid using straws for drinking.''
- C. ''I can give my child the pacifier in 2 weeks.''
- D. ''I may give my baby food mixed with water.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is ''I should avoid using straws for drinking.'' After a cleft palate repair, the child should avoid straws, pacifiers, spoons, and fingers near the mouth for 7 to 10 days to prevent injury to the surgical site. Allowing the child to use a straw can create negative pressure in the mouth, potentially disrupting the healing process. The other options are appropriate postoperative instructions for a child who had a cleft palate repair and do not pose a risk to the surgical site.
5. Based on the information given, which patient would be an appropriate candidate for a closed MRI without contrast?
- A. A 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI.
- B. A 35-year-old woman with Multiple Sclerosis who is trying to conceive.
- C. A 67-year-old man who had open-heart surgery 4 years ago.
- D. A 40-year-old woman in a hypomanic state for the last 2 days.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI. MRI can be used to diagnose musculoskeletal disorders, and this patient has no contraindications to an MRI. Choice B is incorrect because using MRI without contrast may not be ideal for a patient trying to conceive. Choice C is incorrect as the patient's past open-heart surgery may pose risks for an MRI without contrast. Choice D is incorrect since the patient's hypomanic state does not indicate a need for an MRI without contrast for joint pain.
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