Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the troponin T value is at 5.3 ng/mL. Which of these interventions, if not already completed, would take priority over the others?

• A. Place the patient in a 90-degree position
• B. Assess whether the patient is taking diuretics
• C. Obtain and attach defibrillator leads
• D. Assess the patient's last ejection fraction

Correct answer: Obtain and attach defibrillator leads

Rationale: In this scenario, the elevated Troponin T level indicates cardiac damage, possibly due to a myocardial infarction. A Troponin T value of 5.3 ng/mL is significantly elevated (normal levels are below 0.2 ng/mL), suggesting acute cardiac injury. Given the setting of an Emergency Room and the critical nature of the situation, the priority intervention should be to obtain and attach defibrillator leads. Elevated Troponin T levels can indicate a higher risk of arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. Defibrillator leads are essential for monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm and readiness for immediate defibrillation if necessary. Placing the patient in a 90-degree position (Choice A) or assessing diuretic use (Choice B) are not immediate priorities in this critical situation. Additionally, assessing the patient's last ejection fraction (Choice D) is important but not as urgent as preparing for potential life-threatening arrhythmias requiring defibrillation.

2. While taking the health history of a 70-year-old patient being treated for a Duodenal Ulcer, the nurse learns that the patient is complaining of epigastric pain. What assessment finding would the nurse expect to note?

• A. Melena
• B. Nausea
• C. Hernia
• D. Hyperthermia

Correct answer: Melena

Rationale: Melena is the passage of black, tarry stools due to the presence of blood in the gastrointestinal tract, usually originating from the upper digestive system. In the context of a Duodenal Ulcer, melena can occur as a result of bleeding in the duodenum or the upper part of the small intestine. This finding is significant as it indicates potential gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a common complication of duodenal ulcers. Nausea (Choice B) is a nonspecific symptom that may be present with various gastrointestinal conditions but is not specific to duodenal ulcers. Hernia (Choice C) involves the protrusion of an organ through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it and is not directly related to the symptoms of a duodenal ulcer. Hyperthermia (Choice D), which refers to an elevated body temperature, is not typically associated with duodenal ulcers unless there are severe complications present.

3. A client is being instructed in the use of an incentive spirometer. Which of the following statements from the nurse indicates correct teaching about using this device?

• A. Lie back in a reclining position while using the spirometer.
• B. Take slow deep breaths to reach your goal.
• C. Set a goal of using the spirometer at least 3 times per day.
• D. Practice coughing after taking 10 breaths.

Correct answer: D: Practice coughing after taking 10 breaths.

Rationale: An incentive spirometer is a device used to improve lung function and reduce the risk of atelectasis. The correct way to use the spirometer is by sitting up and taking slow, deep breaths to achieve the set goal, not by lying back in a reclining position or taking rapid, quick breaths. Setting a goal of using the spirometer multiple times a day is beneficial, but it is not the best indicator of correct teaching. After using the spirometer, the client should practice coughing to help clear any loosened secretions that may have occurred during the breathing exercises.

4. The nurse analyzes the results of a patient's arterial blood gases (ABGs). Which finding would require immediate action?

• A. The bicarbonate level (HCO3) is 31 mEq/L
• B. The arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 92%
• C. The partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2) is 31 mm Hg
• D. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mm Hg

Correct answer: The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mm Hg

Rationale: While all the values are abnormal, the low PaO2 level of 59 mm Hg indicates that the patient is at a critical point on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. At this level, a small decrease in PaO2 can lead to a significant drop in oxygen saturation and compromise tissue oxygenation. Therefore, immediate intervention is necessary to improve the patient's oxygenation status. Choice A (HCO3 of 31 mEq/L) may indicate metabolic alkalosis or compensation for respiratory acidosis; however, it does not require immediate action in this scenario. Choice B (SaO2 of 92%) is slightly low but not critically low to require immediate action. Choice C (PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg) is within the normal range and does not indicate immediate danger to the patient.

5. A nurse and client are discussing the client’s progress toward understanding his behavior under stress. This is typical of which phase in the therapeutic relationship?

• A. Pre-interaction
• B. Orientation
• C. Working
• D. Termination

Correct answer: Working

Rationale: The correct answer is the working phase. During this phase, the nurse and client actively work together to explore alternative behaviors and techniques. Discussions in this phase focus on understanding the underlying meaning behind the behavior and implementing strategies for change. Pre-interaction (choice A) refers to the phase before the nurse and client first meet and establish a relationship. The orientation phase (choice B) involves introductions, setting goals, and establishing boundaries. Termination (choice D) is the phase where the therapeutic relationship concludes, and closure is achieved.

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