Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the troponin T value is at 5.3 ng/mL. Which of these interventions, if not already completed, would take priority over the others?

• A. Place the patient in a 90-degree position
• B. Assess whether the patient is taking diuretics
• C. Obtain and attach defibrillator leads
• D. Assess the patient's last ejection fraction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the elevated Troponin T level indicates cardiac damage, possibly due to a myocardial infarction. A Troponin T value of 5.3 ng/mL is significantly elevated (normal levels are below 0.2 ng/mL), suggesting acute cardiac injury. Given the setting of an Emergency Room and the critical nature of the situation, the priority intervention should be to obtain and attach defibrillator leads. Elevated Troponin T levels can indicate a higher risk of arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. Defibrillator leads are essential for monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm and readiness for immediate defibrillation if necessary. Placing the patient in a 90-degree position (Choice A) or assessing diuretic use (Choice B) are not immediate priorities in this critical situation. Additionally, assessing the patient's last ejection fraction (Choice D) is important but not as urgent as preparing for potential life-threatening arrhythmias requiring defibrillation.

2. A patient has been diagnosed with acute gastritis in a clinic. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated for this patient?

• A. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn)
• B. Calcium carbonate
• C. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
• D. Furosemide (Lasix)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naproxen sodium is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that can cause inflammation of the upper GI tract. For this reason, it is contraindicated in a patient with gastritis. Gastritis involves inflammation of the stomach lining, and medications like Naproxen can exacerbate this condition. Calcium carbonate is an antacid that can help neutralize stomach acid and may actually provide relief for gastritis symptoms. Clarithromycin is an antibiotic used to treat H. pylori infection, a common cause of gastritis. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat conditions like edema and hypertension, not directly contraindicated in gastritis.

3. To prevent a Valsalva maneuver in a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse would:

• A. Assist the client in using the bedside commode.
• B. Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed.
• C. Administer antidysrhythmics prn as ordered.
• D. Maintain the client on strict bed rest.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering stool softeners daily is crucial to prevent straining during defecation, which can lead to the Valsalva maneuver. Straining can increase intrathoracic pressure, decrease venous return to the heart, and reduce cardiac output, potentially worsening the client's condition. If constipation occurs, the use of laxatives may be necessary to avoid straining. Administering antidysrhythmics on an as-needed basis is not indicated for preventing the Valsalva maneuver; they are used to manage dysrhythmias. Strict bed rest is not necessary and may lead to complications such as deconditioning, DVT, and respiratory issues in the absence of specific medical indications.

4. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?

• A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
• B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
• C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
• D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.

5. The nurse prepares a patient with a left-sided pleural effusion for a thoracentesis. How should the nurse position the patient?

• A. Supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees
• B. In a high-Fowler's position with the left arm extended
• C. On the right side with the left arm extended above the head
• D. Sitting upright with the arms supported on an overbed table

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct position for a patient with a left-sided pleural effusion undergoing thoracentesis is sitting upright with the arms supported on an overbed table. This position helps increase lung expansion, allows fluid to collect at the lung bases, and expands the intercostal space making access to the pleural space easier. Placing the patient supine, in a high-Fowler's position, or on the right side with the left arm extended above the head could increase the work of breathing for the patient and complicate the thoracentesis procedure for the healthcare provider.

Similar Questions