a client is diagnosed with schizophrenia a physician orders haloperidol haldol 50 mg bid benztropine cogentin 1 mg prn and zolpidem ambien 10 mg hs wh
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NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia. A physician orders haloperidol (Haldol) 50 mg bid, benztropine (Cogentin) 1 mg prn, and zolpidem (Ambien) 10 mg HS. Which client behavior would warrant the nurse to administer benztropine?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Benztropine (Cogentin) is an anticholinergic medication used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle rigidity, which are common side effects of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Tactile hallucinations and reports of hearing disturbing voices are symptoms of schizophrenia that would typically be addressed by the antipsychotic medication (haloperidol) itself. Tardive dyskinesia, a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, would require discontinuation of the antipsychotic medication rather than administration of benztropine.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to draw a blood specimen from an adult client's central line. All of the following actions for this procedure are correct EXCEPT:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When drawing a blood specimen from a central line, the healthcare professional should disconnect any infusions that are currently running and that could contaminate the specimen. It is important to use a minimum size of a 10 cc syringe when using a central line to avoid placing too much pressure on the catheter. Cleaning the cap with alcohol and attaching a 5 cc syringe is not appropriate as a larger syringe size should be used for this procedure. Drawing 5 cc of a blood sample to discard and flushing with saline after the sample are correct steps in the process of drawing a blood specimen from a central line.

3. As you are assessing the fetus during labor, you are determining the fetal lie, presentation, attitude, station, and position. Your client asks you what all these assessments are. Among other things, how should you respond to the mother?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: You should explain that fetal station is the level of the fetus's presenting part in relationship to the mother's ischial spines. Fetal station is measured in terms of the number of centimeters above or below the mother's ischial spines. When the fetus is 1 to 5 centimeters above the ischial spines, the fetal station is -1 to -5, and when the fetus is 1 to 5 centimeters below the level of the maternal ischial spines, the fetal station is +1 to +5. Choices A, B, and C provide incorrect information about fetal lie, presentation, and attitude, respectively, which do not align with the definitions of these terms in obstetrics.

4. The charge nurse is notified that the unit will be receiving an admission of a client from another bed in the hospital in order to make room for others being admitted through the emergency room. The unit is the Women's Health Center of the hospital. Which of the following patients would be most appropriate to be transferred to this unit?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When deciding on transferring patients between units in a hospital, it is essential to consider the appropriateness of the patient for the receiving unit. The Women's Health Center typically caters to female patients with gynecological or obstetric conditions that do not require intensive monitoring or specialized care. In this scenario, the most suitable patient for transfer to the Women's Health Center would be the 26-year-old woman who had a bowel resection, as her condition aligns more closely with the services provided in that unit. The other options, including a male patient, a critically ill patient on a ventilator, and an elderly patient with Alzheimer's disease, would not be appropriate for transfer to a Women's Health Center due to the specialized care they require, which may not align with the unit's focus and staffing capabilities.

5. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.

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