Nursing Elites

1. A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia. A physician orders haloperidol (Haldol) 50 mg bid, benztropine (Cogentin) 1 mg prn, and zolpidem (Ambien) 10 mg HS. Which client behavior would warrant the nurse to administer benztropine?

• A. Tactile hallucinations
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Restlessness and muscle rigidity
• D. Reports of hearing disturbing voices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Benztropine (Cogentin) is an anticholinergic medication used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle rigidity, which are common side effects of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Tactile hallucinations and reports of hearing disturbing voices are symptoms of schizophrenia that would typically be addressed by the antipsychotic medication (haloperidol) itself. Tardive dyskinesia, a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, would require discontinuation of the antipsychotic medication rather than administration of benztropine.

2. As a nursing supervisor in a long-term care facility, you prioritize strict infection control prevention measures due to the understanding that the normal aging process weakens the body's defenses. Which theory of aging supports the necessity of strict infection control prevention measures?

• A. The Programmed Longevity Theory
• B. The Immunological Theory of Aging
• C. The Endocrine Theory
• D. The Rate of Living Theory

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The theory of aging that aligns with the need for strict infection control prevention measures is the Immunological Theory of Aging. This theory posits that aging leads to a decline in the body's immune defenses and a reduced ability of antibodies to protect against infections. The other theories do not directly address the impact of aging on the immune system. The Programmed Longevity Theory focuses on genetic changes affecting aging, the Endocrine Theory emphasizes hormonal changes, and the Rate of Living Theory relates longevity to the rate of oxygen metabolism.

3. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?

• A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
• B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
• C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
• D. Dopamine system stabilizers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

4. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.

5. Mr. Freeman has difficulty getting out of bed. The nurse should encourage Mr. Freeman to ______________.

• A. ask for assistance before getting out of bed.
• B. remain in bed because it is safer and he will not fall.
• C. instruct him to stand up quickly from the bed.
• D. lean forward and push up and off the bed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should encourage Mr. Freeman to use his call bell and ask for assistance before getting out of bed. This can prevent him from falling. Patients should not stay in bed; they should be encouraged to get out of bed as much as possible to prevent complications like pressure ulcers and muscle weakness. Instructing a patient to stand up quickly from the bed is unsafe as it can lead to dizziness and falls. Similarly, leaning forward and pushing off the bed can increase the risk of falls and should be avoided. Asking for assistance is the safest and most appropriate option to ensure patient safety and prevent accidents.

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