a client is being admitted to the stroke care unit of a rehabilitation center which of the following best describes the action of the nurse at admissi
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. Upon admission to the stroke care unit of a rehabilitation center, what is the primary action of the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is admitted to a stroke care unit in a rehabilitation center, the nurse's initial priority is to assess the client. This assessment includes identifying relevant health history data that may impact the client's care. By recognizing the client's current needs and limitations, the nurse can develop a comprehensive understanding of the client's condition. This information is crucial for generating a nursing diagnosis and establishing appropriate care outcomes. While collecting and organizing documents for the medical record, preparing identification bracelets, and securing valuables are important tasks, they are not the primary actions that directly influence the client's immediate care upon admission.

2. Jaime has a diagnosis of schizophrenia with negative symptoms. In planning care for the client, Nurse Brienne would anticipate a problem with:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as Jaime, a common problem is avolition, which is the lack of motivation for activities. These 'negative' symptoms are characterized by inexpressive faces, blank looks, monotone speech, few gestures, and a seeming lack of interest in the world. Patients may also experience an inability to feel pleasure or act spontaneously. It is crucial to differentiate between the lack of expression and lack of feeling, as well as between lack of will and lack of activity. Auditory hallucinations (choice A) are positive symptoms, not typically associated with negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Bizarre behaviors (choice B) are more aligned with positive symptoms like disorganized behavior. Ideas of reference (choice C) involve incorrectly interpreting casual incidents and external events as having direct reference to oneself, which is not directly related to motivation for activities seen in negative symptoms.

3. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.

4. Which of the following screening tools have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening for intimate partner violence?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the above screening tools, including HITS, HARK, and STaT, have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening intimate partner violence, as per the National Preventive Services Task Force. These tools are effective in identifying current or recent intimate partner violence. While the Partner Violence screen may have some predictive value for future intimate partner violence, the question specifically focuses on screening tools with high diagnostic accuracy, making 'All of the above' the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C are specific validated screening tools for intimate partner violence, each with its own set of questions that have been shown to be effective in identifying individuals experiencing intimate partner violence. Therefore, 'All of the above' is the most comprehensive and accurate choice for this question.

5. A 39-year-old woman presents for treatment of excessive vaginal bleeding after giving birth to twins one week ago. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis in this situation is 'Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage.' Post-partum hemorrhage can lead to excessive bleeding, putting the client at risk of fluid volume deficit due to the loss of blood volume. This diagnosis is most appropriate as it addresses the immediate concern of fluid loss. 'Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss' (Choice A) is incorrect as the priority in this case is addressing the physical issue of fluid volume deficit rather than knowledge deficit. 'Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect' (Choice B) is not relevant to the situation described. 'Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery' (Choice D) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this context where the primary concern is fluid volume deficit due to post-partum hemorrhage.

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